O
otjm
Guest
When I use the word “mistranslation” I do not imply that it was unwitting, nor do I imply that it was intentional. I simply say that pro multis is not correctly translated “for all”.Actually, it’s not a mistranslation…it must have been deliberate “mistranslation”. It was a deliberate CHANGE as it is impossible that the authorities who approved the NEW wording did not know it was NEW.
SFD
Given the fact that a word in English can have multiple meanings, and so can a word in Latin, I will not argue as to possible permutations of “multis”; we can all accept that what was said (pro multis) should not translate out for “all”. Whether or not “multis” can be translated to mean all, or the Greek from which the Latin was derived, or the Aramaic ferom which the Greek was derived I will leave to others.
And it is also possible that the authorities who approved the translation - read, those in the Vatican - knew that it was not a literal translation, but accepted it. The fact that they changed it does not mean that it was theologically incorrect (see my prior thread), but does mean that it was not accurate as to what was intended by the Latin phrase.