World's Toughest Catholic Quiz

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RyanL:
I take umbrage with the question on Contraception, because it doesn’t say ARTIFICIAL Contraception. NFP is contraception, simply the God intended way of doing it that remains open to life and is only done when serious reasons for doing so are present.

Contraception defined below:

Main Entry: con·tra·cep·tion : deliberate prevention of conception or impregnation

God Bless,
RyanL
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Nooo - NFP is NOT contraception, natural or otherwise (it IS a form of birth control). Utilizing NFP to avoid pregnancy simple means having sex when it is physically “impossible” to get pregnant…in other words, nothing “contra” is going on, there is no deliberate prevention of a pregnancy that would otherwise normally occur. One is simply timing intercourse during a period of infertility.

For the same reason, NFP can be used to achieve pregnancy, because one has sex during the time when pregnancy is most likely to occur. At no time is the natural process of conception being thwarted (that thwarting is what contraception entails.)
 
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maendem:
Nooo - NFP is NOT contraception…in other words, nothing “contra” is going on, there is no deliberate prevention of a pregnancy that would otherwise normally occur. …
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Under closer inspection, you’re entirely correct and I was wrong. If I recall correctly, my NFP instructor explained it incorrectly. I looked to the Church, and found the following, from the Pontifical Council for the Familiy - The Family and Human Rights:
Article 3
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  The spouses have the inalienable right to found a family and to decide on the spacing of births and the number of children to be born, taking into full consideration their duties towards themselves, their children already born, the family and society, in a just hierarchy of values and in accordance with the objective moral order which excludes recourse to contraception, sterilization and abortion.
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Mea culpa. I still would have prefered if they included the word “artificial”. :o

I also wish they wouldn’t have confused me with “manifestation” rather than the correct term - “person”. Is a person a manifestation? Abstractly, yes. Concretely…I suppose not.

Like many above, I also said that Christ’s divinity did not die on the cross, as even though I die I don’t think the Church teaches that my *soul *dies - I believe the Church teaches that my soul has eternal life. Because of this line of reasoning, I’m still not sure what why it is incorrect to say that his divinity did die…anyone who can help me out on this one, it would be appreciated.

God Bless,
RyanL
 
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dumspirospero:
Are we not sure a Lawyer didn’t construct those questions??? :confused: I get all tripped up with that techinal terms…LOL .
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If Karl Keating was involved…yes, a lawyer did construct the questions! Actually, I think he prefers to refer to himself as a “recovering lawyer”…

God Bless,
RyanL
 
Promotor Fidei:
Thanks for the quiz!

I scored as St. Augustine 🙂
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EEEAAAKKK!!! I scored John Calvin!! Where’s a priest when you need one?!?

My score:
Karl Barth 100%
Anselm 100%
John Calvin 100%
Augustine 67%
Friedrich Schleiermacher 67%
Charles Finney 67%
Martin Luther 33%

Well, the good news is that I’m only 33% Luther…

The official result was Anselm, but the percent scores are a bit troublesome.
 
I am happy with my results 🙂

You scored as **Anselm. **http://images.quizfarm.com/1118145761anselm.jpg

pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/imp.gif?event=noiframe&client=ca-pub-5821249150429455&dt=1127503005593&lmt=1127503005&alternate_ad_url=http%3A%2F%2Fquizfarm.com%2Ffc-box.html&prev_fmts=728x90_as&format=300x250_as&output=html&url=http%3A%2F%2Fquizfarm.com%2Fresults.php&color_bg=eeeeee&color_text=333333&color_link=000055&color_url=666666&color_border=ffffff&ref=http%3A%2F%2Fquizfarm.com%2Fmiddle.php&cc=691&u_h=1024&u_w=1280&u_ah=994&u_aw=1280&u_cd=16&u_tz=-300&u_his=3&u_java=true

Anselm is the outstanding theologian of the medieval period.He sees man’s primary problem as having failed to render unto God what we owe him, so God becomes man in Christ and gives God what he is due. You should read ‘Cur Deus Homo?’

var img_str1="";img_str1=“http://images.quizfarm.com/1118145761anselm.jpg”; var result_str1="";Friedrich Schleiermacher

100%Anselm

100%Augustine

100%J?Moltmann

87%Jonathan Edwards

67%Karl Barth

67%Charles Finney

53%Paul Tillich

33%John Calvin

33%Martin Luther

33%

Frank Roman said:
quizfarm.com/test.php?q_id=44116

Which Theologian are you?
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Hikers5:
I got 15 correct, but take exception to #14. I still think (c) is correct. Catechism states in para 2042 that second precept is “You shall confess your sins at least once a year” It doesn’t say anything about the necessity of it being mortal sin.

Also, it is my understanding that one may receive communion before confessing a mortal sin if one was unable to go to confession AND one has made a perfect confession and subsequently goes to confession at the first opportunity.

Am I wrong here?

Hikers5
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Yup. Canon law takes precedence, being the law of the church. It states ‘Can. 989 All the faithful who have reached the age of discretion are bound faithfully to confess their grave sins at least once a year.’

Also the new catechism only seems to show five precepts rather than six as some did before.

Still, that’s a TRICKY one.
 
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banjo:
I wondered about that also, but I really take exception ot #19. There are three conditions for Mortal Sin: serious matter, suffiecent reflection, and full consent of the will. A matter may be serious but all three must be present for the sin to be mortal.
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I found lots of documents saying that serious, grave and mortal are synonyms in relation to mortal sins. Can’t find an authoritative document, but this seems fairly thorough:

‘…while mortal sins may also be called “grave” or “grievous” sins. They may also be referred to simply as “serious sin”, although many Catholics criticize the latter term, believing that all sin should be considered serious, whether venial or mortal.’

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mortal_sin
 
I got a lousy 14. I didn’t choose any of the “None of the above” answers. Looks like I need to do some serious studying…😦
 
Promotor Fidei:
I found lots of documents saying that serious, grave and mortal are synonyms in relation to mortal sins. Can’t find an authoritative document, but this seems fairly thorough:

‘…while mortal sins may also be called “grave” or “grievous” sins. They may also be referred to simply as “serious sin”, although many Catholics criticize the latter term, believing that all sin should be considered serious, whether venial or mortal.’

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mortal_sin
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Thanks Promotor, I may be mixing “serious sin” and “serious matter.” As for wikipedia, I would prefer a more ecclesialtical authority.
 
That was fun. I’m St. Augustine 🙂 I couldn’t figure out how to make the cut and paste I got work here :confused:
joey(name removed by moderator)
 
Br. Rich SFO:
I got 18 out of 20

I do not agree with 15
Christs Divinity did not die on the cross. His Divinity remained united to His body in the grave and His Divinity remained united to His soul in the Limbo of the Fathers. The Second Person of the Trinity died on the Cross. God cannot die since He is ETERNAL.
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I got the same as you.
 
hmm…I got 16, which is better than I thought I would do…while checking my answers, I did a whole lot of, “Oh yeah, I did know that!” the wording threw me a lot of the time.
 
How’s 14/20 for someone who isn’t a cradle Catholic and just started studying 9 months ago? 🙂

Dan
 
Got all 20. Had to really conditionalize my answers though, even some of the correct answers had misleading terminology.

Josh
 
I disagree with the issue of the validity of the marriage; the church says that the marriage was not a valid Sacrament; but validity also applies to the issue of civil law. The Church takes no position as to the validity of the civil aspects of the marriage; and as the marriage in civil law is still considered valid after a divorce, the issue of the legitimacy of children is not impacted by the Church decree.

To make matters even more confusing, the State also may declare the marriage annuled, which is a declaration that the marriage was not valid, but has no impact on any Church decision in terms of the sacramental nature of their act (but may be evidence that it was not sacramental, either).
 
15/20…not too bad.
Fourteen to sixteen answers correct: You’re nearly ready to take over the adult education classes in your parish–you need to do just a little more homework.
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Church Militant said:
15/20…not too bad.
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WHAT!!! ??? CM only got 15??? I can’t believe it. This quiz is clearly crooked! No way, Jose, could Church Militant get a 15. He shoulda had a 21!
 
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otm:
I disagree with the issue of the validity of the marriage; the church says that the marriage was not a valid Sacrament; but validity also applies to the issue of civil law. The Church takes no position as to the validity of the civil aspects of the marriage; and as the marriage in civil law is still considered valid after a divorce, the issue of the legitimacy of children is not impacted by the Church decree.

To make matters even more confusing, the State also may declare the marriage annuled, which is a declaration that the marriage was not valid, but has no impact on any Church decision in terms of the sacramental nature of their act (but may be evidence that it was not sacramental, either).
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I’ve always viewed civil marriage as a joke. The government has as much authority to validate/annul marriages as it does to forgive sins.

Whether a legal civil agreement of shared finances exists or not, in my mind, has nothing to do with this question.

Josh
 
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