I received the following via email today:
Here are some thoughts off the top of my head.
The fact is that we do not have any hardcore evidence as to the extent of the LXX. It is my opinion that the LXX of Jesus’ day probably included it, but it cannot be proved It began in the 3nd century BC with the Torah and expanded from there. The grandson of Sirach translated his grandfather’s work into Greek in Egypt around BC 150. We know that some of the Deuterocanon (LXX) was widely circulated in Jesus’ day. Fragments were found in Qumran and Masada. But there are no bound bibles (Codices) that exist from this period, so whether these texts were collected together is unknown.
I think that it is more likely that the LXX of Jesus’ day did include these writings for the following reasons:
- The deuterocanon is alluded and referred to in the NT. Doesn’t prove they were part of the collection, but given the number of citations from the LXX it points in that direction.
- Everyone acknowledges that the NT makes use of the words and terms of the LXX. The same is true for words that are only found in the Deuterocanon. Again, doesn’t prove it, but points in that general direction.*
- Josephus, in his antiquities, uses the LXX and makes extensive use of 1 Maccabees. Suggesting, but not proving that it was part of that collection.
- All the major codices of the LXX include the Deuterocanon (although for various reasons a codex may omit one or two books). Doesn’t prove it, but points to it.
- The opposite is also true, no major Codex purposefully restricts itself to only the Protestant canon. If the LXX once existed in this form, why haven’t we found a “Palestinian Codex.” This is an argument from silence, but it is worth noting.
- The exemplar of the Old Latin, which was replaced by Jerome’s Vulgate, appears to have come from a North African Jewish text of the LXX around the first century. As far as I can tell, no one disputes that the Old Latin recension always included the Deuterocanon. Indeed, some early fathers who relied on the OL quoted the from Deuterocanon suggesting that they were included within that collection.
- The LXX was part of the texts used by the Jews between the time of Christ and the Bar Kochba revolt when the LXX was repudiated. Sirach and those books written after Sirach were repudiated at that time (suggesting that they were part of some sort of authoritative collection) and the Jews adopted the Hebrew MT. So, Judaism moved from a pretty wide LXX use to a strict MT use. However, books of the Deuterocanon were retained, in a dimished capacity after the change (Sirach, Wisdom, Baruch, Tobit, Judith) at least for a little while. If the Deuterocanon was not part of some authoritative collection of Scripture, and the only candidate the we know of is the LXX, then there doesn’t seem to be any reason why this collection of books would remain before fading out of use. If the Deuterocanon existed in the LXX prior to the Second Revolt (AD 132) then they must have be included during an earlier period, certainly within the first century.
- The point comes from memory. If you think it is important, I can dig up the original source and double-check my statement is accurate.
Probably the best argument against their inclusion at that time is Philo, but I think I debunked that line of thinking pretty well in my book. Nearly all of his citations are from the Torah leaving only a handful from the rest of the Bible. The omission of the Deuterocanon, even if they were part of the LXX of the time, would be expected.
I suppose if you put all the evidence on one side and all the opposing evidence on the other, the scale would lean a bit towards their inclusion. If the deuteros weren’t part of the LXX at that time, then I suppose these points would need to be explained.
These are a few of my thoughts given off the top of my head. I hope they help.
God Bless,
Gary