J
JRKH
Guest
Below are some observations that I would like feedback on.
This grew out of the various discussions we have here about the definition of “Church” in the NT.
It has been my contention that Mt 16: 18-19, Mt 18: 15-18 and Acts 15:1-29 give a clear line of logic regarding Church Authority AND how the Apostles exercised that Authority where difficult questions arose.
It appears that the term “Body of Believers” CAN reasonably be substituted in many cases. As it can also be substituted for “saints”. However there are notable exceptions.
One thing of note is the fact that Paul uses the terms “Church” and “saints” almost equally and twice he uses them together in the same verse.
The Term “Church” appears 76 times in the NT but
only Twice in the Gospels.
Both times in Matthew and in both cases it is associated with authority – Binding and loosing, Keys of the kingdom etc.
In most cases of the Pauline Epistles “Body of believers” certainly could be substituted for the term Church, but Paul also uses the term “saints”.
Paul uses the term “Church” 46 times.
Paul uses the term “Saints” 41 times.
What is even more interesting is that, the term “saint” and “Church” appear together in 2 verses of Paul’s Epistles and both in a similar context.
1Co 1:2 -
To the Church of God which is at Corinth, to those who have been sanctified in Christ Jesus, saints by calling, with all who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, their Lord and ours:
2Co 1:1 -
Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, and Timothy our brother, To the Church of God which is at Corinth with all the saints who are throughout Achaia:
If Church simply means “Body of believers” why this distinction?
Later Paul says this:
1Co 14:35
If they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in Church.
How does “Church” here fit with the idea/translation of “Body of believers”? Under this definition, a woman would never be allowed to speak at all.
Col 1:25 -
Of this Church I was made a minister according to the stewardship from God bestowed on me for your benefit, so that I might fully carry out the preaching of the word of God,
Would it have been proper for this “community of believers” to reject Paul in favor of another “minister”? Or was Paul a minister (Priest) of the One Church and thus with authority over the Colossians for the preaching of the Gospel?
1Ti 3:15 –
but in case I am delayed, I write so that you will know how one ought to conduct himself in the household of God, which is the Church of the living God, the pillar and support of the truth.
If the assembly of believers is taken here is repetitious. For What difference would there be between the Body of Believers and “The household of God”
Heb 12:23 -
to the general assembly and church of the firstborn who are enrolled in heaven, and to God, the Judge of all, and to the spirits of the righteous made perfect,
Why is general assembly and Church separated here? Isn’t the letter to ALL the faithful?
I do not wish to imply that the terms Church and “Body of believers” is mutually exlusive, with one indicating authority and the other not. Only that it appears that Paul and the Apostles did not always think in term of the terms being interchangable.
One other thing that occurs to me in this regard is that, if the “Church” is made up of the followers of Christ, why the term Church in the first place? Why not Disciples? That is what they are called in the Gospels?
I’m just trying to get a clearer understanding.
Any Comments or additional (name removed by moderator)ut is welcome.
Peace
James
This grew out of the various discussions we have here about the definition of “Church” in the NT.
It has been my contention that Mt 16: 18-19, Mt 18: 15-18 and Acts 15:1-29 give a clear line of logic regarding Church Authority AND how the Apostles exercised that Authority where difficult questions arose.
It appears that the term “Body of Believers” CAN reasonably be substituted in many cases. As it can also be substituted for “saints”. However there are notable exceptions.
One thing of note is the fact that Paul uses the terms “Church” and “saints” almost equally and twice he uses them together in the same verse.
The Term “Church” appears 76 times in the NT but
only Twice in the Gospels.
Both times in Matthew and in both cases it is associated with authority – Binding and loosing, Keys of the kingdom etc.
In most cases of the Pauline Epistles “Body of believers” certainly could be substituted for the term Church, but Paul also uses the term “saints”.
Paul uses the term “Church” 46 times.
Paul uses the term “Saints” 41 times.
What is even more interesting is that, the term “saint” and “Church” appear together in 2 verses of Paul’s Epistles and both in a similar context.
1Co 1:2 -
To the Church of God which is at Corinth, to those who have been sanctified in Christ Jesus, saints by calling, with all who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, their Lord and ours:
2Co 1:1 -
Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, and Timothy our brother, To the Church of God which is at Corinth with all the saints who are throughout Achaia:
If Church simply means “Body of believers” why this distinction?
Later Paul says this:
1Co 14:35
If they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in Church.
How does “Church” here fit with the idea/translation of “Body of believers”? Under this definition, a woman would never be allowed to speak at all.
Col 1:25 -
Of this Church I was made a minister according to the stewardship from God bestowed on me for your benefit, so that I might fully carry out the preaching of the word of God,
Would it have been proper for this “community of believers” to reject Paul in favor of another “minister”? Or was Paul a minister (Priest) of the One Church and thus with authority over the Colossians for the preaching of the Gospel?
1Ti 3:15 –
but in case I am delayed, I write so that you will know how one ought to conduct himself in the household of God, which is the Church of the living God, the pillar and support of the truth.
If the assembly of believers is taken here is repetitious. For What difference would there be between the Body of Believers and “The household of God”
Heb 12:23 -
to the general assembly and church of the firstborn who are enrolled in heaven, and to God, the Judge of all, and to the spirits of the righteous made perfect,
Why is general assembly and Church separated here? Isn’t the letter to ALL the faithful?
I do not wish to imply that the terms Church and “Body of believers” is mutually exlusive, with one indicating authority and the other not. Only that it appears that Paul and the Apostles did not always think in term of the terms being interchangable.
One other thing that occurs to me in this regard is that, if the “Church” is made up of the followers of Christ, why the term Church in the first place? Why not Disciples? That is what they are called in the Gospels?
I’m just trying to get a clearer understanding.
Any Comments or additional (name removed by moderator)ut is welcome.
Peace
James