Would you convert if EO and RCC were in full communion?

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Not meaning to get off on a tangent, but I think Trebor’s statement pales in comparison with some of the anti-protestant bigotry I’ve encountered among Orthodox. 😦
Did you miss my post #224–where I explained the objective of my comment?
 
So, you didn’t see my post. OK. That’s helpful to know.
(I’m not sure why you’re asking, given that I said that I’ve encountered attitudes a lot worse than yours, not the other way around.)
A statement that could have been “much worse” is still bad to some extent. I wished to make sure readers knew that my comment was actually an argumentum ad absurdum, in order to make it clear that I wasn’t comparing Protestantism to Islam as such, but rather saying that the East shouldn’t be blamed for problems that arise there just as the West shouldn’t be blamed for same.
 
Convert?

Never Again.

A Catechumen No More.

Received into Holy Orthodoxy this day AD2013.

Benedictus Deus. Benedictum Nomen Sanctum Eius.

Christ is Risen!
 
dzheremi;10704744]With due respect, I think the way that you are phrasing your objections to the Orthodox stance on the Roman Pope shows a rather fanciful reading of history.
Respectfully yours, I am finding today’s Orthodox view of history neglects the apostolic period before there ever was a Patriarch in Constantinople the Bishop of Rome already existed and was in high esteem by both religious and secular powers who sought to destroy the Bishops of Rome.

Yet Orthodox want to invent a history after Constantine united the Emprie and placed a patriarch in his capital of Constantinople, who vied and competed with the high esteem of the Bishop of Rome that ultimately created a schism.** Hence, the schism is deep rooted in political power from the patriarch of Constantinople who already usurped power and esteem from the other apostolic sees and then tried to usurp the Bishop of Rome which later began the course to the schism.**

Orthodoxy today carries with it such sentiments from afar, not consenting to the fact, that before Constantine all the bishops united to the Bishop of Rome was considered always the True apostolic Catholic faith which is always Orthodox. What is “UN-Orthodox” is rejecting this unity with the apostolic successors and the bishop of Rome.

The specifics of the historical internal political power battles is what the Orthodox are revealing here, when the Bishops of Rome appear to be weak by fending (almost by themselves) for the Apostolic faith, against all political powers and heretical powers united with the Emperors. When it came to matters of faith and doctrines the Emperors required the Bishop’s of Rome approval. Small and isolated though the bishop’s of Rome were compared to the patriarch’s of Constantinople at the time, it must of frustrated the powerful Patriarch’s of Constantinople when her Emperor saught the Bishop’s of Rome approval.

If we were to break down and exhaust each case by case of the Orthodox view from both sides of these political and religious challenges the Church faced. The outcome will reveal **a small insignificant bishop of Rome protecting the apostolic faith of the Catholic Church which she already possessed, long, long before the Eastern heretics and Constantines political reign with the Patriarch’s of Constantinople./B

The Eastern Emperors new that the Bishop of Rome already existed long before the patriarch’s of Constantinople came into power, and it was found that this Rock foundation of the Bishop of Rome that the Emperors sought the Bishop’s of Rome approval on matters of faith and doctrine, even at the beset of his Patriarch in Constantinople. After the Emperor, all Eastern Church decisions are secondary.

In summary the Orthodox position of not needing to be in union with the Bishop’s of Rome was and is never an Orthodox practice and belief, until after the office of the Patriarch of Constantinople came into existence by a secular power, then begins the course of the Anti- sentiments of the Bishops of Rome from the East.

Peace be with you**
 
Hey Gabriel, how about a couple of, say, scholarly citations discussing the wild claims you make. I wouldn’t want anyone misled by pure hyperbole. Certainly there must be some fascinating sources around which you formulate the most…interesting…tales.
 
dzheremi;10704744]
What certain Latin Catholics fail to recognize is that all bishops are Peter.
Please allow me to clarify for you, your above statement from a Latin Catholic understanding of Peter.

I would disagree with you that all bishops are Peter. For one scripture does not support that view, nor does sacred Tradition. Jesus was set apart who was rejected by the builders. Jesus is the one who set Peter apart from his apostles united as one to himself.

Secondly if all bishops are Peter, then all bishops would have a Latin liturgy. There would not be a Liturgy from St. Mark, St. John Chrysostom etc.

Here is where I would agree with your statement; It begins with the local parish, my priest is Peter because he is united to my local bishop who is also Peter because my bishop is in union with the visible office of Peter who is the bishop of Rome.

History also records that all the other apostles fell in and out of heresy, while Peter (bishop of Rome) has never taught heresy from his apostolic office.

If all bishops were Peter, when the other bishops fell in and out of heresy, your theory would prove Jesus wrong, and that the gates of hell did come against Peter and prevailed against him.

You, see, I have to disagree with you, there is only one Apostolic successor of Peter which history records to be unbroken succession from the apostle Peter himself in the apostolic successor’s in the bishop’s of Rome. All other see’s have come in out of apostolic succession to the apostles.

Your statement does carry weight in the first three centuries, because Peter appointed the bishop in Antioch, which later fell into heresy. St.Mark a disciple of Peter was also appointed bishop in Alexandria has apostolic succession to St.Peter but this see also fell into heresy, and both see’s including Jerusalem were usurped by the Patriarch of Constantinople after the lifting of the persecution by Pagan Rome.

I would be interested in understanding how the Ortrhodox view that all bishops are Peter from sacred scripture, sacred Tradition and recorded history.

Peace be with you
 
Hey Gabriel, how about a couple of, say, scholarly citations discussing the wild claims you make. I wouldn’t want anyone misled by pure hyperbole. Certainly there must be some fascinating sources around which you formulate the most…interesting…tales.
Sure; I love when these type of quesitons surface. I must confess that when speaking among Orthodox and challenging their unOrthodox views of the bishop’s of Rome makes me guilty of baiting a little. But I am always happy to refrain in speaking in generalities and land the plane and get into the specifics of each subject. It has been my experience here, that when this takes place and the official statements and records are revealed somehow it leads the Orthodox to onslaughts and insults to scholary circles, when I call the scripture into the content of the subjects, the Orthodox for some reason become silent or reject the scripture content from a scholary position as invalid?

To engage in such subjects, I would recommend one subject at a time, so as to reveal the full content. From my experience this is difficult among the Orthodox because many times they fly off the handle to other subjects thinking it to be a source to discredit the scholar or official resource.

Name your subject and I will be happy to engage a topic, time permitting beginning with the Catechism of the Catholic Church and the Scriptures.👍

I am sure your not one to run, when met with facts from recorded scholars, CCC, scriptures.

Peace be with you
 
Hey Gabriel, how about a couple of, say, scholarly citations discussing the wild claims you make. I wouldn’t want anyone misled by pure hyperbole. Certainly there must be some fascinating sources around which you formulate the most…interesting…tales.
No, it seems he will prefer to continue making things up without any sort of substantiation.
 
Sure; I love when these type of quesitons surface. I must confess that when speaking among Orthodox and challenging their unOrthodox views of the bishop’s of Rome makes me guilty of baiting a little. But I am always happy to refrain in speaking in generalities and land the plane and get into the specifics of each subject. It has been my experience here, that when this takes place and the official statements and records are revealed somehow it leads the Orthodox to onslaughts and insults to scholary circles, when I call the scripture into the content of the subjects, the Orthodox for some reason become silent or reject the scripture content from a scholary position as invalid?

To engage in such subjects, I would recommend one subject at a time, so as to reveal the full content. From my experience this is difficult among the Orthodox because many times they fly off the handle to other subjects thinking it to be a source to discredit the scholar or official resource.

Name your a subject and I will be happy to engage a topic time permitting beginning with the Catechism of the Catholic Church and the Scriptures.👍

I am sure your not one to run, when met with facts from recorded scholars, CCC, scriptures.

Peace be with you
You have not yet cited one specific example to substantiate your outlandish claims, supplying no references to actual historical events, no references to scholarly works on the time period, or even the opinions of reputable scholars. Also, what you are doing here is a fallacious shifting of the burden of proof. Since you are the one making wild and outlandish claims, the burden of proof lies upon you to substantiate them, not upon us to debunk them.
 
You have not yet cited one specific example to substantiate your outlandish claims, supplying no references to actual historical events, no references to scholarly works on the time period, or even the opinions of reputable scholars. Also, what you are doing here is a fallacious shifting of the burden of proof. Since you are the one making wild and outlandish claims, the burden of proof lies upon you to substantiate them, not upon us to debunk them.
One of my outlandish claim; My source follows;

Matthew 16:17 Jesus said to him in reply, “Blessed are you, Simon son of Jona. For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my heavenly Father. And so I say to you, you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys to the kingdom of heaven, Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.”

any questions?
 
One of my outlandish claim; My source follows;

Matthew 16:17 Jesus said to him in reply, “Blessed are you, Simon son of Jona. For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my heavenly Father. And so I say to you, you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys to the kingdom of heaven, Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.”

any questions?
No, I asked for scholarly examples and examples of historical events, which support your claims, not for a few verses from the bible which are completely irrelevant to the claims which you have been making in this thread, which focus on history (and therefore should be substantiated with historical examples).
 
One of my outlandish claim; My source follows;

Matthew 16:17 Jesus said to him in reply, “Blessed are you, Simon son of Jona. For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my heavenly Father. And so I say to you, you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys to the kingdom of heaven, Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.”

any questions?
Yup: why are you going sola scriptura on us?
 
Respectfully yours, I am finding today’s Orthodox view of history neglects the apostolic period before there ever was a Patriarch in Constantinople
I don’t know what you’re talking about. I’m not even in communion with Constantinople, but that doesn’t mean that I’ll ignore history. History is that Rome protested the canon of Constantinople (381) which elevated the bishop of that city, on the grounds that it “demoted” Alexandria, but Alexandria accepted it, so it seems a bit weird to me. I don’t know. At any rate, to say that the Orthodox neglect the period of history before there was a Patriarch in Constantinople is foolishness. We too accept accept Nicaea which occurred before even the founding of Byzantium, and it is no slander against the other churches to say that a Patriarch of Constantinople should be rightly honored as bishop of the new Rome, which is what Constantinople was. If old Rome has a problem with that, fine. The rest of the churches accepted it, and did not wait for the Roman bishop’s approval, as you would have it. How you feel about that centuries later really doesn’t matter. It is law within our churches, and God-willing should the OO and EO ever unite, we will recognize it as such (Copts particularly seem to be sticklers about canons, so I feel confident in stating this), even though it is sadly now mostly symbolic given the death of Christianity in Turkey.
the Bishop of Rome already existed and was in high esteem by both religious and secular powers who sought to destroy the Bishops of Rome.
Huh? By religious and secular powers who sought to destroy him? Maybe we have different definitions of what it means to be held in high esteem, but this sentence is not making much sense to me.
Yet Orthodox want to invent a history after Constantine united the Emprie and placed a patriarch in his capital of Constantinople, who vied and competed with the high esteem of the Bishop of Rome that ultimately created a schism.
Speaking of inventing history, no. It was not Constantinople deciding for itself that it deserves some kind of extra honor that it hadn’t had – it was because it was named as capital of the newly-established Byzantine Empire…you know, the one that actually mattered after old Rome steadily collapsed over about three centuries. When Rome itself was still vibrant and looked to as the capital (i.e., before the partition in 330), a similar honor adhered to it. And, if you really think about it, it didn’t really go away as the bishop of Rome apparently feared it would – when you’re used as the reference point for other things like that, it is still paying honor to you (i.e., Constantinople was “New Rome”, not “New Alexandria”, or “New Seleucia Ctesiphon” or whatever). So I’m afraid that imperial politics also played a role in Rome’s being honored as well, though in any case it is important to note that this honor did not stop being paid to Rome within the Orthodox communion until Rome left it, so it does all ultimately come down to the faith. Better to be an honored Orthodox bishop in a place that most others considered a backwater (…Egypt…) than an un-Orthodox bishop in a formerly great city.
Hence, the schism is deep rooted in political power from the patriarch of Constantinople who already usurped power and esteem from the other apostolic sees and then tried to usurp the Bishop of Rome which later began the course to the schism.
Again, how is it usurpation if the other sees agree with the canon? It is only Rome that has a problem with it, and the idea that we (Alexandria) or Antioch or whoever should protest on account of a decline in esteem sort of assumes esteem is a finite, non-renewable resource, which is frankly bizarre. When we recite the names of the Patriarchs every liturgy, it is not snubbing everyone who is not specifically mentioned. Same thing when we read from the synaxarium the martyrs and others commemorated for the day. Everyone is honored in turn, and if some seem to get mentioned more than others, there’s usually a reason for this. In fact, I asked about this a while ago because I didn’t know any better and thought it was strange that we mentioned HH Mor Ignatius Zakka I Iwas of Antioch and HH Abune Antonios of Eritrea every time, but much more rarely HH Abune Matteous of Ethiopia, and never (as far as I have noticed) the Catholicos of Armenia. Abouna told me that this is because we have mutual agreements with Antioch and Eritrea to mention each others’ Patriarchs in every liturgy, whereas we do not with the others, so if they are mentioned it is relevant to the day, or to the congregation (e.g., HH Abune Matteous is always mentioned when we have Ethiopians among us). As we have not had Armenians with us since before I got here, I have not heard the Armenian Patriarch mentioned. So it’s not a matter of covetousness of power (after all, the OO churches still hold concelebrations, which most definitely include the Armenians), but of internal agreements within the communion. As there are very few analogues to this in RC-Orthodox relations, it stands to reason that Rome is excluded not out of a snub, but as a recognition that we really aren’t in communion.

(cont’d. below)
 
Orthodoxy today carries with it such sentiments from afar, not consenting to the fact, that before Constantine all the bishops united to the Bishop of Rome was considered always the True apostolic Catholic faith which is always Orthodox. What is “UN-Orthodox” is rejecting this unity with the apostolic successors and the bishop of Rome.
I’m sorry, but things are not fact just because you put them in bold and underline them. If it is as you say it is, why were Rome and Constantinople in communion (however uneasily at some points) for almost another seven centuries after the council which elevated the status of Constantinople? I think you’re making a much bigger deal out of this than your forefathers apparently did.
When it came to matters of faith and doctrines the Emperors required the Bishop’s of Rome approval.
Again, there are several examples that run contrary to this idea that fall well within the period before the East-West schism.
Small and isolated though the bishop’s of Rome were compared to the patriarch’s of Constantinople at the time, it must of frustrated the powerful Patriarch’s of Constantinople when her Emperor saught the Bishop’s of Rome approval.
Mind-reading is tough business even if you only concern yourself with people of today, so what makes you so sure what frustrated the Patriarch of Constantinople in your reading of ancient ecclesiastical history?
The Eastern Emperors new that the Bishop of Rome already existed long before the patriarch’s of Constantinople came into power
Duh. Rome existed before the partition of the Empire into Eastern and Western halves. What’s your point?
and it was found that this Rock foundation of the Bishop of Rome
Christ is the foundation (“the stone that the builders rejected has become the chief cornerstone”…or was the Psalmist actually writing about the Roman Pope here, too?), and the rock is Peter’s confession of faith, not the establishment of some sort of dynasty that forever links the bishop of Rome with Peter exclusively, as though Peter never went to Antioch and Christianity would not exist without Rome. That’s all nonsense. Did you know that the much-vaunted “Chair of Peter” was actually originally a literal chair? (As in, something you can sit in or stack or hit someone over the head with if you want to win at WWF wrestling.) It only later became identified with some abstract ideas about the “chair of Peter”, just like it was a later development that made the bishop of Rome into Peter’s exclusive successor in the minds of nobody but the Latins.
In summary the Orthodox position of not needing to be in union with the Bishop’s of Rome was and is never an Orthodox practice and belief, until after the office of the Patriarch of Constantinople came into existence by a secular power, then begins the course of the Anti- sentiments of the Bishops of Rome from the East.
Again, you’ll have to square this with the fact that elevation of Constantinople did not break communion between the East and West, and that all Orthodox are in communion with Peter in one way or another via their respective Antiochian Patriarchates, and…well, everything else that is wrong with your post. I’d love to keep going about all that, but there are only so many hours in the day and now that we are in the Holy Fifities I am much more excited about lunch than I was a few days ago, so…bye. 😃 Maybe somebody else can provide better answers to your ideas.
 
No, I asked for scholarly examples and examples of historical events, which support your claims, not for a few verses from the bible which are completely irrelevant to the claims which you have been making in this thread, which focus on history (and therefore should be substantiated with historical examples).
I am sorry that sacred scripture does not qualify to your scholary standards, would the CCC also be an incomplete source?

The historical events are not a difficulty to surface. What is difficult is finding historical facts and scholary print that the Bishop of Rome never existed before the patriarch of Constantinople.

Now to which specific historical account are you referencing pre-history of the invention of the Patriarchial office of Constantinople when it was true Orthodox to be in Union with the Bishop of Rome, or post history of Constantinople in “UNOrthodoxy” that leads to the schism with the Bishops of Rome?

I am at a disadvantage here because you are summarizing alot of history that has been said on these threads.

What the Ortrhodox posters fail to see here, is that I have not contested the historical events here, What I am contesting is the Orthodox one sided opinions from their personal view of these historical events that lack substance and scholary support from both sides of the historical event so as to draw a full and accurate conclusion, without prejudices and bias views that are UnOrthodox to the unity of all bishops united to the bishop’s of Rome.

Peace be with you
 
What is this “you can’t prove that the Bishop of Rome was not in existence before the Patriarch of Constantinople, therefore EVERYBODY LOOK AT THE AMAZING POINT I’M MAKING” business? Nobody is trying to say that the Patriarch of Constantinople existed before the Bishop of Rome, but what would it prove if he did or didn’t? Every heresy exists before those who stand up to it. That does not mean that the heretics should be given some sort of priority over the Orthodox. It all comes down to the faith. Rome and Constantinople (or Rome and literally everybody else) do not share the same faith. No doubt to Rome this makes them the last to stand for the true faith in its entirety or something, but it doesn’t look that way from Constantinople, or Etchmiadzin, or Alexandria, or Axum, or wherever, and your posts are not exactly helping turn that around, Gabriel.

:whistle:
 
What I am contesting is the Orthodox one sided opinions from their personal view of these historical events that lack substance and scholary support from both sides of the historical event so as to draw a full and accurate conclusion, without prejudices and bias views that are UnOrthodox to the unity of all bishops united to the bishop’s of Rome.
This is one of the most blatantly hypocritical statements I’ve ever encountered on this forum. Nobody, and I mean NOBODY, in this thread is being any more onesided, prejudiced, and biased than you.
 
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