C
Cyril_Of_Canada
Guest
I find it VERY interesting to contrast the Wycliff Bible with Luther’s german translation of the Bible. Both individuals were considered to be Reformers, unless I am wrong about Wycliff here. At the very least, he is seen alongside the Protestant Reformers as a forerunner in wanting to translate the Bible into the vernacular and give the Bible to the masses—a reform itself in what is perceived as fighting against the power of the Church in a sense.
Wycliff existed before the Reformation; Luther existed during it’s time and kick started it.
One Bible was in line with the Catholic Bible; One wasn’t.
One Bible added to the Canon of Scripture; One subtracted from it.
Why didn’t Luther use Wycliff’s English translation of the Bible if he really was concerned
with mass distribution of a bible in the vernacular? It’s a really innocent question that begs the question: Did Luther know about the Wycliff Bible? Was “faith alone” in Wycliff’s bible? Did John Hus and Wycliff view justification as “faith alone” or did the originate with Luther?
If so, why didn’t he sent it off to the printers for mass publication and distribution? He could have saved himself a lot of time from translating the Bible—unless of course it wasn’t about mass distribution of a bible in the vernacular but all about Martin Luther’s biased theological views. He took out the deterocanons and tried to subtract four books from the New Testament as well.
Why didn’t Wycliff and Hus do that? Why didn’t Luther use Wycliff’s bible and the added Paul’s letter Wycliff added to the canon. I think this demonstrates not only that Wycliff’s Bible was good to be considered unauthorized—it alone added to the canon–/it also demostrates Martin Luther’s theological bias, and for him it was never about distributing a bible in the vernacular.
Wycliff existed before the Reformation; Luther existed during it’s time and kick started it.
One Bible was in line with the Catholic Bible; One wasn’t.
One Bible added to the Canon of Scripture; One subtracted from it.
Why didn’t Luther use Wycliff’s English translation of the Bible if he really was concerned
with mass distribution of a bible in the vernacular? It’s a really innocent question that begs the question: Did Luther know about the Wycliff Bible? Was “faith alone” in Wycliff’s bible? Did John Hus and Wycliff view justification as “faith alone” or did the originate with Luther?
If so, why didn’t he sent it off to the printers for mass publication and distribution? He could have saved himself a lot of time from translating the Bible—unless of course it wasn’t about mass distribution of a bible in the vernacular but all about Martin Luther’s biased theological views. He took out the deterocanons and tried to subtract four books from the New Testament as well.
Why didn’t Wycliff and Hus do that? Why didn’t Luther use Wycliff’s bible and the added Paul’s letter Wycliff added to the canon. I think this demonstrates not only that Wycliff’s Bible was good to be considered unauthorized—it alone added to the canon–/it also demostrates Martin Luther’s theological bias, and for him it was never about distributing a bible in the vernacular.