Hey Schaick, you said:
I have been saying on this forum for some time that there is one interpretation with many applications because GOD is not a god of confusion.
So we both agree that the bible alone has only
one truth regarding any one doctrine (other than when a fuller meaning of a doctrine, can be fleshed out without changing it) - and the fact that there is more than one truth regarding certain doctrines is due to fact that people misinterpret the inspired inerrant word of God?
At times in the interpretations there is a fuller meaning that we can take into account, but it in no way contradicts the main interpretation.
Again, I agree, but that is not the case with the doctrine below.
I have been in multiple Bible studies with people from multiple denomination [Bible Study Fellowship- one of the best!] it is amazing that we all get the very same basic interpretation. Only our applications, celebrations are different.
Me too, but I have also experienced just the opposite, right here at CAf, right here at this thread.
We both agree that there is only one truth regarding the following teaching, so, in your opinion, did God leave the world with a way to discern the truth regarding the following teaching which is so very important:
This is my body…
or
This is a symbol of my body?
Is there any way to know the truth regarding the
same teaching, which has mutually exclusive interpretations and deals with eternal life:
Jesus said to them, "I tell you the truth,* unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you.** **54Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, *
and I will raise him up at the last day. 55For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink. 56Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood remains in me, and I in him. 57Just as the living Father sent me and I live because of the Father, so the one who feeds on me will live because of me.
Schaick, the answer from a sola scriptura standpoint is a resounding
no.
Schaick, why is it, in your opinion, that non-Catholics arbitrarily believe the Holy Spirit guided the CC in definitively setting the canon of Scripture, but refuse to believe that the Holy Spirit guided the CC in their interpretation of the canon of scripture, beyond the point of its codification?
Most non-Catholics
reject the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and
4th centuryinterpretation of the CC, regarding the Eucharist, but have no problem embracing the holy bible,
defined by the same church in the 4th century, as the inerrant word of God. Why embrace the CC’s 4th century codification of the holy bible and then reject the CC’s 4th century interpretation of Eucharistic doctrine, which was always believed since the 1st century? Of course the same cannot be said about the correct inclusion of books in the bible and the correct exclusion of books from the bible, until the CC definitively set the canon of Scripture?
It is historical fact that the Catholic Church decided the canon of the Bible, as we know it today. In the first few centuries there was a restless confusion over which writings were to be considered inspired scripture and which were not. It was,ultimately, the bishops of the Catholic Church that convoked at the end of the 4th century and finally/ officially defined the canon, as we know it today.
Schaick, if we can trust the Catholic Church to definitively determine the official canon,of scripture then perhaps we can also trust the CC to interpret it for us - maybe?
Logically, the authority of the bible’s canon is only as good as the authority that defined it - right? Since it is that same Church, the CC, that Jesus gave the keys to the kingdom and the authority to bind and loose… the same church that Jesus gave the spirit of truth to forever guide, into all truth, certainly we can trust the interpretation of that church, in spite of the fact that that church is comprised of all fallible leaders? After all, the apostles, who penned the very words of sacred scripture, were all fallible as were the codifiers of sacred scripture, and that process was a long a grueling one.
Is it fair to suggest that it is for this reason alone that Catholics and non-Catholics can believe that the Bible is the inspired inerrant word of God. If one cannot not believe or trust the authority of the Catholic Church regarding doctrinal matters, then again, why believe their authoritative definition of the holy canon? I don’t get that logic. In the secular world this logic would never fly.