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guanophore
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This post was moved from another thread where it was off topic. justasking4 is looking for a text where every verse of scripture has been infallibly interpreted. Anyone?
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Your church has hardly infallibly defined a single verse of scripture
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Dauphin
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The Bible is interpreted in the Sacred Oral Tradition of the Church; as the apostles taught it, we teach it today. There’s no comprehensive list of “interpretations”; there is the entire deposit of faith, and it must be taken as an organic whole.
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YADA
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This is a straw man argument…First of all “infallable declarations of scripture verses” is not the purpose of infallable declared tenets if the faith. The “Bible” as we have it is infallably declared to be the Scriptures [and by scriptures - those books oftenly identified and known as the catholic bible] to be Infallable, Inerrant and Inspired by God.
Protestants do not have such a declaration…And they have accepted the historical book - at some point in time, then rejecting some, discussing others…
In fact there are countless books that interpret scriputures, Theologocal book, Scripture commentaries, the writings of the Early Church Fathers, the catechism…
Many of these source books have an imprimatur that declare the books to be [minimally] free of doctrinal error and not teaching contrary to the faith.
There is of course, no single document that is a verse by verse, complete overall analysis of the scriptures from the first verse of Genesis to the last verse of Revelation, that has been infallibly declared…Not by Catholics - Church, Magesterium etc…
Similarly; in the Protestant faith tradition, no denomination has one complete source either. In fact, I believe there would be greater discrepancies between various non-catholic interpretations than among the catholic sources…But the task of prooving this would be nearly impossible…
The catholic written record goes back 2000 years, the protestant written history 500 years [and less depending upon the denomination]…
IMHO, the Church has a better grassp of scriptural interpretation, a historical record of that interpretation and a consistancey that the protestant denominations [by the multiplicity of faith, creeds and interpretations] can only envy…if they were unified enough to see it…sadly, they are not…
Protestants do not have such a declaration…And they have accepted the historical book - at some point in time, then rejecting some, discussing others…
In fact there are countless books that interpret scriputures, Theologocal book, Scripture commentaries, the writings of the Early Church Fathers, the catechism…
Many of these source books have an imprimatur that declare the books to be [minimally] free of doctrinal error and not teaching contrary to the faith.
There is of course, no single document that is a verse by verse, complete overall analysis of the scriptures from the first verse of Genesis to the last verse of Revelation, that has been infallibly declared…Not by Catholics - Church, Magesterium etc…
Similarly; in the Protestant faith tradition, no denomination has one complete source either. In fact, I believe there would be greater discrepancies between various non-catholic interpretations than among the catholic sources…But the task of prooving this would be nearly impossible…
The catholic written record goes back 2000 years, the protestant written history 500 years [and less depending upon the denomination]…
IMHO, the Church has a better grassp of scriptural interpretation, a historical record of that interpretation and a consistancey that the protestant denominations [by the multiplicity of faith, creeds and interpretations] can only envy…if they were unified enough to see it…sadly, they are not…
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Nita
Guest
Of course, there is no Catholic book that infallibly defines every verse of Scripture. What the Church does do, is infallibly define doctrines/truths. These doctrines serve as “hedges”, “ramparts”, to protect us, as we read and interpret Scripture, from wandering off into error (“being devoured”).This post was moved from another thread where it was off topic. justasking4 is looking for a text where every verse of scripture has been infallibly interpreted. Anyone?
Psalm 48:13-14 (context: Zion, city of God)
Walk about Zion, go round about her, number her towers, consider well her ramparts, go throught her citadels; that you may tell the next generation that this is God, our God for ever and ever. He will be our guide for ever.
Isaiah 5:5 And now I will tell you what I will do to my vineyard. I will remove its hedge, and it shall be devoured;
When someone interprets a Scripture passage in such a way that it contradicts an infallible doctrine, we know it is an erroneous interpretation. Thank you Lord Jesus for granting your Church the great gift of infallibility.
Nita
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rwoehmke
Guest
These are the only verses that the Church reserves the right to interpret. You will find that they are considered the Scriptural basis for Original Sin and four of the seven Sacraments of the Catholic Church. All else is free to the laity or clergy to interpret as long as that interpretation does not lead to a denial of the defined teachings of doctrines and dogmas which are based on the written Tradition(the Scriptures) and the oral Tradition passed on by the Apostles and the Early Church Fathers.
Reserved Interpretations of Scripture- Pius XII in Aflante Spiritus.
[John 3:5] Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.
[Luke 22:19] And he took bread, and when he had given thanks he broke it and gave it to them, saying, “This is my body which is given for you. Do this in remembrance of me.”
[1 Cor 11:24] and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, “This is my body which is for you. Do this in remembrance of me.”
[John 20:22-23] And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”
[Rom 5:12] Therefore as sin came into the world through one man and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all men sinned –
[James 5:14-15] Is any among you sick? Let him call for the elders of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord; and the prayer of faith will save the sick man, and the Lord will raise him up; and if he has committed sins, he will be forgiven.
I think the key to your question is that while an individual is free to interpret most of Scripture for his personal good he most keep it personal and not be using it to deny Church teachings or justifying sin in himself and others. God does speak to the individual through Scripture, but the individual still has to look to the Church for assurance that he is not deceiving himself. Every Baptized person in the state of grace has the Holy Spirit, but sometimes they don’t hear him very well when He speaks. Why else such a disarray of Christian churches who dsagree with one another’s teaching, rituals or whatever? No place for “The Buck” to stop.
Reserved Interpretations of Scripture- Pius XII in Aflante Spiritus.
[John 3:5] Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.
[Luke 22:19] And he took bread, and when he had given thanks he broke it and gave it to them, saying, “This is my body which is given for you. Do this in remembrance of me.”
[1 Cor 11:24] and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, “This is my body which is for you. Do this in remembrance of me.”
[John 20:22-23] And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”
[Rom 5:12] Therefore as sin came into the world through one man and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all men sinned –
[James 5:14-15] Is any among you sick? Let him call for the elders of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord; and the prayer of faith will save the sick man, and the Lord will raise him up; and if he has committed sins, he will be forgiven.
I think the key to your question is that while an individual is free to interpret most of Scripture for his personal good he most keep it personal and not be using it to deny Church teachings or justifying sin in himself and others. God does speak to the individual through Scripture, but the individual still has to look to the Church for assurance that he is not deceiving himself. Every Baptized person in the state of grace has the Holy Spirit, but sometimes they don’t hear him very well when He speaks. Why else such a disarray of Christian churches who dsagree with one another’s teaching, rituals or whatever? No place for “The Buck” to stop.
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