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Did Zoroastrianism really influence Judaism/Christianity/Islam/Monotheistic Religions in most of their beliefs today?
Why would you think that?Did Zoroastrianism really influence Judaism/Christianity/Islam/Monotheistic Religions in most of their beliefs today?
Because of the new developments that took place in ancient Judaism after the Exile.Why would you think that?
What historical evidence can you provide for this view (i.e., evidence that would convince someone who does not accept your theological presuppositions)? I think that this dating is completely implausible, and I’m a Christian.well that is what they are teaching in secular schools. I’m taking a World’s Religions class and that is what the teacher is saying. I think he needs to go back and read the Book of Job which was probably written around 1950-2000 BC.
The story of Job, so I’ve read, probably originated in a non-Hebraic culture.well that is what they are teaching in secular schools. I’m taking a World’s Religions class and that is what the teacher is saying. I think he needs to go back and read the Book of Job which was probably written around 1950-2000 BC.
I’ve read about this as well. I personally don’t see any problem with it, as God reveals facets of His truth to various beliefs. For instance, much of Catholic theology is influenced by Greek philosophy. Perhaps in His wisdom, God has chosen that Zoroastrianism influence Judaism, and Judaism in turn would influence much of Christianity. Now, as for this claim itself, I will only list some of the influences that Zoroastrianism had on Christianity and Judaism, and it might be true–or it might not be. Some of them include the belief in angels (which according to some historians was not present in Judaism before the Exile) and the Holy Spirit (Ahura Mazda in Zoroastrianism).Did Zoroastrianism really influence Judaism/Christianity/Islam/Monotheistic Religions in most of their beliefs today?
Zoroastrianism existed before Christianity; I’m not sure if some small remnant of it existed well into the first few centuries, though if it did at that point it wouldn’t have much influence the way it did at its height. I am not sure how Christianity could have influenced any religion before its time.To me it seems more likely that Zoroastrianism (and other pre-Christian religions) was “influenced” by Christianity.
Read my post again. Demons had some inkling of what was to come, and incorporated distorted truth into their false religions, to better deceive people. Mithraism is a clear example of this sort of thing. Zoroastrianism takes the truth of the cosmic battle between Good and evil and distorts it by making the evil force equal to the Good.Zoroastrianism existed before Christianity; I’m not sure if some small remnant of it existed well into the first few centuries, though if it did at that point it wouldn’t have much influence the way it did at its height. I am not sure how Christianity could have influenced any religion before its time.
Hhmm…I don’t see other religions as intrinsically evil, or else we could argue that Judaism must also be evil itself, since it is not Christian. However, I see pre-Christian religions more as precursors to the truth; meaning that God used them as vehicles to plant certain truths into them, and later on these truths would be synthesized into Christianity. Again, remember that Christianity took certain aspects of these religions and Christianized them, bringing back the glory to God, as it should rightfully be. Also, we must remember that at that point, God has not revealed His truth fully, yet to come then in Jesus. So these religions were necessary, as it were, to exist, until the time that the Gospel can reach all nations.Read my post again. Demons had some inkling of what was to come, and incorporated distorted truth into their false religions, to better deceive people. Mithraism is a clear example of this sort of thing. Zoroastrianism takes the truth of the cosmic battle between Good and evil and distorts it by making the evil force equal to the Good.
Judaism is different, since it was instituted directly by God Himself. Christianity is the fulfillment of Judaism. Certainly the true elements of the other preChristian religions can and in many cases have been redeemed back into modern Christian practice. But let’s face it, other religions simply disagree with each other and with Christianity/Judaism on a lot of (very basic and important) points. They’re not viable alternatives to the divinely revealed truth. I don’t know if other religions are intrinsically evil, but they are at least misleading.Hhmm…I don’t see other religions as intrinsically evil, or else we could argue that Judaism must also be evil itself, since it is not Christian. However, I see pre-Christian religions more as precursors to the truth; meaning that God used them as vehicles to plant certain truths into them, and later on these truths would be synthesized into Christianity. Again, remember that Christianity took certain aspects of these religions and Christianized them, bringing back the glory to God, as it should rightfully be. Also, we must remember that at that point, God has not revealed His truth fully, yet to come then in Jesus. So these religions were necessary, as it were, to exist, until the time that the Gospel can reach all nations.
This sounds too convenient an explanation. What about Islam which started 600 yrs after Christianity?To me it seems more likely that Zoroastrianism (and other pre-Christian religions) was “influenced” by Christianity. The spiritual powers of this world had a certain knowledge of the real situation and of what was to come, and distorted the truth to create all sorts of cults and religions in mockery of true doctrines, including ones not yet revealed at the time. In this way they laid (lay) a more subtle trap for people: the most effective lies start from a grain of truth It’s easier to deceive someone into becoming a Buddhist than a Satanist.
This sounds similar to something Warren H. Carroll would write. Again, why would God send a half message out there? Are you saying that this religion was used by Him so that people would live uprightly? Why wouldnt He reveal Himself in Truth as He did with Moses?However, I see pre-Christian religions more as precursors to the truth; meaning that God used them as vehicles to plant certain truths into them, and later on these truths would be synthesized into Christianity.
This is intersting explanation though, but I think this religion, like all aspects of life can not be seen only in black and white.Read my post again. Demons had some inkling of what was to come, and incorporated distorted truth into their false religions, to better deceive people. Mithraism is a clear example of this sort of thing. Zoroastrianism takes the truth of the cosmic battle between Good and evil and distorts it by making the evil force equal to the Good.
HiDid Zoroastrianism really influence Judaism/Christianity/Islam/Monotheistic Religions in most of their beliefs today?
Zoroastrianism is very much still around, though small.Zoroastrianism existed before Christianity; I’m not sure if some small remnant of it existed well into the first few centuries, though if it did at that point it wouldn’t have much influence the way it did at its height.
First and foremost, because the time was not yet to reveal all truth, which would be the time when Christ would come. Even in ancient Israel, the truth was behind a veil. As well, God knows that at that time, man did not have the capacity yet to communicate at a fast pace as he does now, and so He used such means to reveal parts of His truth to those people.This sounds similar to something Warren H. Carroll would write. Again, why would God send a half message out there? Are you saying that this religion was used by Him so that people would live uprightly? Why wouldnt He reveal Himself in Truth as He did with Moses?