‘A Catholic case for same-sex marriage’

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Gn 1:27 - complementarity of sexes reflects God’s inner unity
Gn 2:21-24 - transmission of life through total self-donation - one flesh
Gn 19 - original sin deteriorates to Sodom’s sin, destroyed
Lv18:22 - called abomination, cut off from people (v.29)
Lv 20;13 - both shall be put to death for abominable deed
Rom 1;27 - called unnatural, shameful, and a perversity
1Cor 6:9 - active homosexuals won’t inherit kingdom of God
1Tim 1:9-10 - those who engage in such acts called sinners
Now point me to the bible verses where Jesus condemns homosexuality?
 
Kingdom

**I read it, I got the point of it. But it was wrong. **

Why was it wrong? Just because you say so? :D;)
 
Now point me to the bible verses where Jesus condemns homosexuality?
The Good News was news, not repetition. You seriously misunderstand the purpose of the kerygma. Jesus not only came to fulfill The Law (pertinent verses of which buffalo just reminded you of), he did fulfill the Law. He affirmed Jewish Law regarding morality. Where he differed in emphasis or interpretation of priorities in the Law were recorded orally, and correspondingly later in writing. Jesus’ fulfillment of the Law is a key theological doctrine of Christianity.

Had he overturned the Jewish Law on sexual morality, there would have been no Christianity to survive. He would have had zero credibility in the ancient Mediterranean.

The Gospels proclaimed what was truly different about Jesus when it came to the divine message. Had there been even a hint of departure on His part regarding the Jewish sexual moral code, there would have been arguments about that recorded in the Gospels, just as there were arguments recorded about dietary and Sabbath laws, about which Jesus’ departure from those were published.

The Jewish condemnation of homosexual behavior was absolute. There is no credible Scripture scholar who disputes that. Jewish embraced His own people’s moral code, and in fact intensified and deepened that moral commitment. That is recorded in Chapter 5 of the Gospel of Matthew.

Have a nice day.
 
Kingdom

**Because it is not unnatural. **

Does the Anglican Church teach that sodomy is natural? :confused:
 
No, but that is in no way analogous to homosexual acts.
By the logic being used-it is. If the only purpose of marriage is to produce children, as some on here have argued, then infertile straight couples marrying have no purpose in marrying.
 
No, because both God and science say that article is wrong.
You have a private revelation from God? Who knew? 😉 Do share. In what vision did He appear to you, and proclaim uniquely a contradictory message than what He proclaimed to God’s People in both Testaments and in Sacred Tradition?
 
The Good News was news, not repetition. You seriously misunderstand the purpose of the kerygma. Jesus not only came to fulfill The Law (pertinent verses of which buffalo just reminded you of), he did fulfill the Law. He affirmed Jewish Law regarding morality. Where he differed in emphasis or interpretation of priorities in the Law were recorded orally, and correspondingly later in writing. Jesus’ fulfillment of the Law is a key theological doctrine of Christianity.

Had he overturned the Jewish Law on sexual morality, there would have been no Christianity to survive. He would have had zero credibility in the ancient Mediterranean.

The Gospels proclaimed what was truly different about Jesus when it came to the divine message. Had there been even a hint of departure on His part regarding the Jewish sexual moral code, there would have been arguments about that recorded in the Gospels, just as there were arguments recorded about dietary and Sabbath laws, about which Jesus’ departure from those were published.

The Jewish condemnation of homosexual behavior was absolute. There is no credible Scripture scholar who disputes that. Jewish embraced His own people’s moral code, and in fact intensified and deepened that moral commitment. That is recorded in Chapter 5 of the Gospel of Matthew.

Have a nice day.
Jesus overturned the Hebrew code by saying there were only two laws, love God and love each other. The old laws were fulfilled through his death and his resurrection.
 
You have a private revelation from God? Who knew? 😉 Do share. In what vision did He appear to you, and proclaim uniquely a contradictory message than what He proclaimed to God’s People in both Testaments and in Sacred Tradition?
He didn’t. I’m just following what he and his son believe and taught.
 
By the logic being used-it is. If the only purpose of marriage is to produce children, as some on here have argued, then infertile straight couples marrying have no purpose in marrying.
This is very true.

Those who argue that the only purpose of marriage is to produce children don’t understand the Trinity, nor do they understand that the Trinity is the model for all spousal love.

Trinitarian love - the love of God the Father for the Son and God the Son for the Father - exists in-and-of itself, for itself, because God is love. When husband and wife live this out, children are the result. Children are not the purpose of that love but the result of that love.

-Tim-
 
This is very true.

Those who argue that the only purpose of marriage is to produce children don’t understand the Trinity, nor do they understand that the Trinity is the model for all spousal love.

Trinitarian love - the love of God the Father for the Son and God the Son for the Father - exists in-and-of itself, for itself, because God is love. When husband and wife live this out, children are the result. **Children are not the purpose of that love but the result of that love. **

-Tim-
Exactly.
 
By the logic being used-it is. If the only purpose of marriage is to produce children, as some on here have argued, then infertile straight couples marrying have no purpose in marrying.
Infertile couples engage in the marital act. That is an act known to produce children. Not every marital act is fertile but every marital act is correctly ordered toward procreation. No homosexual act is correctly ordered.
 
Infertile couples engage in the marital act. That is an act known to produce children. Not every marital act is fertile but every marital act is correctly ordered toward procreation. No homosexual act is correctly ordered.
Yet if the infertile couple was performing this act in the hope of children it would be pointless, not pointless in pleasure however and homosexual acts are focused around pleasure.
 
Now point me to the bible verses where Jesus condemns homosexuality?
The Jews had rejected homosexuality long before Jesus. They knew the history of Lot and Abraham very well. We do not see a particular condemnation by Jesus. Much of what He said and did was not recorded. There is enough positive evidence that the only sexual activity He endorsed was limited to the marital state.

Here is Jesus defining marriage as between one male and one female.

Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning made them male and female, and said, “For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh”? So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate (Matthew 19:4-6).

Is your claim it was necessary that He then go through and exclude every other arrangement?

**“Let marriage be held in honor among all, and let the marriage bed be undefiled; but God will judge fornicators and adulterers.” (Hebrews 13:4)

But now your claim is the Apostle’s exhortations on this carry no weight?
**
 
The Jews had rejected homosexuality long before Jesus. They knew the history of Lot and Abraham very well. We do not see a particular condemnation by Jesus. Much of what He said and did was not recorded. There is enough positive evidence that the only sexual activity He endorsed was limited to the marital state.

Here is Jesus defining marriage as between one male and one female.

Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning made them male and female, and said, “For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh”? So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate (Matthew 19:4-6).

Is your claim it was necessary that He then go through and exclude every other arrangement?

**“Let marriage be held in honor among all, and let the marriage bed be undefiled; but God will judge fornicators and adulterers.” (Hebrews 13:4)

But now your claim is the Apostle’s exhortations on this carry no weight?
**
I am well aware much of what Jesus said and did was not recorded but the fact remains he never condemned homosexuality.

Is your claim that anything specifically not mentioned is therefore either false/wrong.

Men make mistakes. I hold Jesus’s words on the matter above others. Oh wait! He’s never recorded as having talked about it.
 
How is this even a thing still? why are we even debating it?

Here’s the reality(and lets for fun pretend god and the church do not exists):

You have man, durable able to reproduce on the fly. Has a on average stronger upper muscle match (don’t bring up exceptions because they are exceptions for a reason.)

Women, higher pain tolerance, only able to reproduce 3 days out of the month with a 9 month term before birth. Not rendering the women helpless but the saying ‘it takes a village to raise a child’ is a thing for a reason.

You have both of these (for lack a better term and comic relief) sub species of human get together and make the foundation of a family. Man goes and makes bread women takes care of affairs at home. How is ultimately not ultimately important.

Children watch interactions between man and moment both for reference on how to treat those around them and for reference how one treats the other sex.

This is the core functioning family. The default blue print if only because it works. Exceptions can be made but those again as stated above are exceptions and not the norm.

If children made bread and mom and dad stayed at home there would be no learning curve for the child. If mom made bread and father stays at home the odds of reproduction diminish or if the mother is with child cuts down on her available activities and forces man back out the door to make bread. Not to mentions depending on types of bread winning aka employment may put mother at risk to compromise the pregnancy.

You can bark about women’s rights and gay rights and the rights of everyone under the sun but at the end of the day the above formula is the established norm for a functioning home and society.👍

You brake that too frequently your equation gets screwed up.:eek:

God is a being of common sense he told the Jews not to eat pork not because He regrets making pigs but because at the time it was unhealthy. You could safely eat pork but the odds that you could do so frequently were slim.

In the same way homosexuality doesn’t serve the community blue print fully stop. Like anything I suppose it works in rare occasions but yet again we call that an exception not the rule.

If its not broke, don’t fix it!:rolleyes:
 
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