M
Mt_28_19_20
Guest
I did not assume the change of words was intentional. Yet a change in wording to must be married might be construed to exclude widowers.Oh my goodness! I wasn’t trying to change the wording to come up with an argument. Good grief, give me a break. I used the word married instead of husband of 1 wife. I wasn’t trying to exclude widowers I was trying to type a shorter post.
No, I’m asking for clarification about your beliefs about married bishops based upon your use of Mt 16:21.
This verse has the same type of comma separation structure as 1 Tim 3. So I’m asking you if you believe (based on your comments about Mt 16:21 and others) that a bishop must be the husband of 1 wife?
I would not characterize it that I used Mt 16:21. I asked to apply your view on “must” in 1 Tim 3 to Mt 16:21 and see what the implications would be. “Let’s apply that to Mt 16:21”
Which matters more, what I believe, or what Scripture says, which we have from the Catholic Church through the Holy Spirit?
Do I think 1 Tim 3 excludes bishops from being married? No.
Do I think chosing men consistent with 1 Tim 3 to be bishops is consistent with Scripture, and good for the body of Christ, the Catholic Church? Yes.
Do I think becoming a widower excludes a man from being a bishop? No.
Have there been married Popes? Yes.
Have there been married bishops? Yes.
Was Peter married? Yes.
Was Mary married. Yes.
Was Moses married? Yes.
Was Zacharias, a priest, married to Elizabeth? Yes.
Michael