2 questions for non-catholics, that were always on my mind as a former non-catholic...

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Like all of the original reformers, Martin Luther believed that Mary was without sin:

“But the other conception, namely the infusion of the soul, it is piously and suitably believed, was without any sin, so that while the soul was being infused, she would at the same time be cleansed from original sin and adorned with the gifts of God to receive the holy soul thus infused. And thus, in the very moment in which she began to live, she was without all sin…”

Why I agree with the reformers, men like Martin Luther, who agreed with the Catholic Church, that Mary was without sin:

Paul reminds us in passages such as Romans 6, that grace (charis) is the antithesis and conqueror of sin. If Mary was completely full of grace (the antithesis and conqueror of sin) - then logically sin had no dominion over Jesus’ Mother:

Romans 6:14:

*“For sin will have no dominion over you, since you are not under law but under grace.” *

If Mary was not kecharitomene (full of grace) - like the rest of mankind, then it stands to reason that sin, (Satan) - potentially had dominion over Jesus’ mother during her earthly life, like the rest of us. If this is true then there is a chance that sin (Satan) - could have encroached upon Jesus’ mother during her earthly life, like any other human, damning her eternal soul to hell, if she was not properly disposed at the time of her death, like any other person. In other words, the influence of sin (Satan) - which can be so insidious and infectious to anyone not completely endowed with God’s grace, (the antithesis and conqueror of sin) - could have been Mary’s eternal downfall if there was no guarantee that Mary was in a state of grace upon her demise. The same principle apllies to the rest of us.

Question:
  1. How can those who reject the notion that Mary was in a state of grace her entire life, know, with certainty, that Jesus’ mother is now forever with Jesus, and not in hell? Simply saying that Mary was a good person is not any kind of guarantee, just as it isn’t for me or you!
  2. Just as catholics embrace the teachings of the catholic church regarding Marian doctrines shouldn’t non-catholics embrace the teachings of the original men that spearheaded the protestant reformation, regarding Mary?
I understand that scripture says:

*“But now that you have been set free from sin and have become slaves of God, the fruit you get leads to sanctification and its end, eternal life. For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.”
*
Which is awesome, but it also says:

“Enter the narrow gate, for the gate is wide and the road is spacious which leads to destruction, and many are those who are going in it.” Matthew

So clearly, even though it’s a free gift thanks to Jesus Christ, the road to heaven seems to be, sadly, the road less traveled.
 
I am a former non-Catholic but I will answer anyways. According to CARM the latin translation “full of grace” is an incorrect one, compared to the greek which says “highly favored one.” They also mention that in Acts 6:8 it says “And Stephen, full of grace and power, was performing great wonders and signs among the people,” and according to our logic that the Bible saying that Mary is “full of grace” means she was conceived without sin, we must also believe that Stephen was conceived without sin as well. I have not investigated the claims that CARM is making; however their language is very anti-Catholic in nature and seems very one-sided.
 
Like all of the original reformers, Martin Luther believed that Mary was without sin:

“But the other conception, namely the infusion of the soul, it is piously and suitably believed, was without any sin, so that while the soul was being infused, she would at the same time be cleansed from original sin and adorned with the gifts of God to receive the holy soul thus infused. And thus, in the very moment in which she began to live, she was without all sin…”

Why I agree with the reformers, men like Martin Luther, who agreed with the Catholic Church, that Mary was without sin:

Paul reminds us in passages such as Romans 6, that grace (charis) is the antithesis and conqueror of sin. If Mary was completely full of grace (the antithesis and conqueror of sin) - then logically sin had no dominion over Jesus’ Mother:

Romans 6:14:

*“For sin will have no dominion over you, since you are not under law but under grace.” *

If Mary was not kecharitomene (full of grace) - like the rest of mankind, then it stands to reason that sin, (Satan) - potentially had dominion over Jesus’ mother during her earthly life, like the rest of us. If this is true then there is a chance that sin (Satan) - could have encroached upon Jesus’ mother during her earthly life, like any other human, damning her eternal soul to hell, if she was not properly disposed at the time of her death, like any other person. In other words, the influence of sin (Satan) - which can be so insidious and infectious to anyone not completely endowed with God’s grace, (the antithesis and conqueror of sin) - could have been Mary’s eternal downfall if there was no guarantee that Mary was in a state of grace upon her demise. The same principle apllies to the rest of us.

Question:
  1. How can those who reject the notion that Mary was in a state of grace her entire life, know, with certainty, that Jesus’ mother is now forever with Jesus, and not in hell? Simply saying that Mary was a good person is not any kind of guarantee, just as it isn’t for me or you!
  2. Just as catholics embrace the teachings of the catholic church regarding Marian doctrines shouldn’t non-catholics embrace the teachings of the original men that spearheaded the protestant reformation, regarding Mary?
I understand that scripture says:

*“But now that you have been set free from sin and have become slaves of God, the fruit you get leads to sanctification and its end, eternal life. For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.”
*
Which is awesome, but it also says:

“Enter the narrow gate, for the gate is wide and the road is spacious which leads to destruction, and many are those who are going in it.” Matthew

So clearly, even though it’s a free gift thanks to Jesus Christ, the road to heaven seems to be, sadly, the road less traveled.
  1. Mary is most definitely in heaven because the bible tells us so, Rev: 12
  2. On your second point I totally agree.Mary should receive more reverence by the Protestant churches. I recognise Mary, use the Rosary and ask for petition to her Son.But I’m a Presbyterian and sometimes I feel uncomfortable when I see excessive Marian Devotion. I think that it put’s a lot of Protestants of the idea of venerating our Mother.
    Because of this perceived excessive Devotion many Protestants see Mary being Worshipped rather than being Revered.
    Your Romano-Presbyterian Brother in Christ,
    Richard.
 
I might be going off at a tangent but as a cradle Catholic there’s something I want to clarify to understand this post: do Protestants not believe that the Blessed Virgin Mary was free from original sin and lived a life free from actual sin? If not, why don’t they believe this?
 
I am a former non-Catholic but I will answer anyways. According to CARM the latin translation “full of grace” is an incorrect one, compared to the greek which says “highly favored one.” They also mention that in Acts 6:8 it says “And Stephen, full of grace and power, was performing great wonders and signs among the people,” and according to our logic that the Bible saying that Mary is “full of grace” means she was conceived without sin, we must also believe that Stephen was conceived without sin as well. I have not investigated the claims that CARM is making; however their language is very anti-Catholic in nature and seems very one-sided.
Hey Comp…

Protestant scholars insist that in Luke 1:28, the phrase used is kecharitomene and in Acts 6:8 the phrase used is pleres charitos and that pleres charitos does not have the grammatical construction of kecharitomene. In other words, it doesn’t refer to Stephen as having been filled completely with grace at some point in the past, as is the case with kecharitomene. Acts seems to describe Stephen as “full of grace” at that moment in time, where as Luke actually refers to Mary, by name, as kecharitomene which, according tom protestant scholars, is translated as: “Hail, Having-Been-Made-Fully-Graced.”

Greek Bible (NT):

kecaritwmenh
kecharitOmenE
G5487
vp Perf Pas Nom Sg f
Having-been-graced

How do you think CARM would address the preceding and answer the following?

1)How can those who reject the notion that Mary was in a state of grace her entire life, know, with certainty, that Jesus’ mother is now forever with Jesus, and not in hell? Simply saying that Mary was a good person is not any kind of guarantee, just as it isn’t for me or you!
  1. Just as catholics embrace the teachings of the catholic church regarding Marian doctrines shouldn’t non-catholics embrace the teachings of the original men that spearheaded the protestant reformation, regarding Mary?
 
I might be going off at a tangent but as a cradle Catholic there’s something I want to clarify to understand this post: do Protestants not believe that the Blessed Virgin Mary was free from original sin and lived a life free from actual sin? If not, why don’t they believe this?
To answer in the most general and vague way…“protestants”, sometimes also referred to as “christians”, “evangelicals”, “non-catholics (which include other religions)” have many opinions about Mary. Not all are consistent with Catholic belief, not all are well expressed. So, part of the answer to your question is…other questions:

Do they even believe in “original sin”?

Do they believe in sin, period?

Do they believe Mary had sexual relations with Joseph AFTER Jesus was born?

Do they believe Mary had “other children”?

Do they believe that Mary was, really, no one “special”, except that she carried the Child Jesus to term?

Many Protestants (true use of the word), like Lutherans, have very similar beliefs to Catholic belief. Then, as Richard has pointed out above, many are distrustful of Catholics who see Mary in every stain on a table cloth, and who SEEM to adore her by their excessive devotion vis-s-vis Jesus, the Father and the Spirit.

Vague as I could make it…sorry.

Peace.
 
I might be going off at a tangent but as a cradle Catholic there’s something I want to clarify to understand this post: do Protestants not believe that the Blessed Virgin Mary was free from original sin and lived a life free from actual sin? If not, why don’t they believe this?
Well, the ol’ protestant mantra is: if it’s not in the bible then it’s not to be believed, which really opens up a whole can of problems for protestants regarding things like the Trinity, sola scriptura etc., but I digress…
 
To answer in the most general and vague way…“protestants”, sometimes also referred to as “christians”, “evangelicals”, “non-catholics (which include other religions)” have many opinions about Mary. Not all are consistent with Catholic belief, not all are well expressed. So, part of the answer to your question is…other questions:

Do they even believe in “original sin”?

Do they believe in sin, period?

Do they believe Mary had sexual relations with Joseph AFTER Jesus was born?

Do they believe Mary had “other children”?

Do they believe that Mary was, really, no one “special”, except that she carried the Child Jesus to term?

Many Protestants (true use of the word), like Lutherans, have very similar beliefs to Catholic belief. Then, as Richard has pointed out above, many are distrustful of Catholics who see Mary in every stain on a table cloth, and who SEEM to adore her by their excessive devotion vis-s-vis Jesus, the Father and the Spirit.

Vague as I could make it…sorry.

Peace.
Hey James. How, in your opinion, would “protestants” answer the the original questions of the thread:

1)How can those who reject the notion that Mary was in a state of grace her entire life, know, with certainty, that Jesus’ mother is now forever with Jesus, and not in hell? Simply saying that Mary was a good person is not any kind of guarantee, just as it isn’t for me or you!
  1. Just as catholics embrace the teachings of the catholic church regarding Marian doctrines shouldn’t non-catholics embrace the teachings of the original men that spearheaded the protestant reformation, regarding Mary?
 
  1. Mary is most definitely in heaven because the bible tells us so, Rev: 12
  2. On your second point I totally agree.Mary should receive more reverence by the Protestant churches. I recognise Mary, use the Rosary and ask for petition to her Son.But I’m a Presbyterian and sometimes I feel uncomfortable when I see excessive Marian Devotion. I think that it put’s a lot of Protestants of the idea of venerating our Mother.
    Because of this perceived excessive Devotion many Protestants see Mary being Worshipped rather than being Revered.
    Your Romano-Presbyterian Brother in Christ,
    Richard.
Thanks for your answer brother. What was your answer to the 2nd question?

All of the original reformers believed that Mary was without sin. With that said, just as catholics embrace the teachings of the catholic church regarding Marian doctrines shouldn’t non-catholics embrace the teachings of the original men that spearheaded the protestant reformation, regarding Mary?

The appropriate word here should be protestant, like James said, because eastern orthodox Christians are also non-catholic but the believe that Mary was without sin…
 
To answer in the most general and vague way…“protestants”, sometimes also referred to as “christians”, “evangelicals”, “non-catholics (which include other religions)” have many opinions about Mary. Not all are consistent with Catholic belief, not all are well expressed. So, part of the answer to your question is…other questions:

Do they even believe in “original sin”?

Do they believe in sin, period?

Do they believe Mary had sexual relations with Joseph AFTER Jesus was born?

Do they believe Mary had “other children”?

Do they believe that Mary was, really, no one “special”, except that she carried the Child Jesus to term?

Many Protestants (true use of the word), like Lutherans, have very similar beliefs to Catholic belief. Then, as Richard has pointed out above, many are distrustful of Catholics who see Mary in every stain on a table cloth, and who SEEM to adore her by their excessive devotion vis-s-vis Jesus, the Father and the Spirit.

Vague as I could make it…sorry.

Peace.
Thanks for that reply. I suppose that there’s potentially as many different answers as there are Protestant denominations.
 
I might be going off at a tangent but as a cradle Catholic there’s something I want to clarify to understand this post: do Protestants not believe that the Blessed Virgin Mary was free from original sin and lived a life free from actual sin? If not, why don’t they believe this?
Their is a great deal of scriptural ignorance In the Protestant churches as regards Mary.I cant remember her ever being mentioned in catechism class when I was a child. Most Protestants don’t even recognise Mary as a perpetual Virgin because of the various references to his brothers and sisters. My own personal belief is that Joseph had a wife who bore him children and when she died he married Mary. Joseph seems to have been quite a bit older than Mary and It also appears that he was long dead before Christ started his mission. So Christ probably did have Brothers and Sisters Step Brothers and Sisters.
If Martin Luther were alive to-day he would probably be horrified by the absence of Mary in the church.Most Protestants would be clueless if you put the question " is Mary without sin ? "
Your Brother in Christ,
Richard.
 
Thanks for your answer brother. What was your answer to the 2nd question?

All of the original reformers believed that Mary was without sin. With that said, just as catholics embrace the teachings of the catholic church regarding Marian doctrines shouldn’t non-catholics embrace the teachings of the original men that spearheaded the protestant reformation, regarding Mary?

The appropriate word here should be protestant, like James said, because eastern orthodox Christians are also non-catholic but the believe that Mary was without sin…
I totally agree that the Protestant churches should embrace Mary. My own interpretation of scripture guides me to the fact that we should or even must embrace her.But the sorry fact is that we don’t revere our mother Mary. That such a gift was given to man from the cross only to be cast back fills me with deep sorrow.
Your Brother in Christ,
Richard.
 
Hi gentlemen–Though I’ve be reading at CAF for going on a year, this is only my second post here, so be nice, please.

This is both a sincere question and something of a reply to Matthew Holford’s post #4: If God could keep Mary --a fully human woman–free from original sin from birth, through no particular pre-birth merit of her own, so that she never sinned, then why did He do that only for her? Why not keep all of us who struggle with sin, all of us who desire to be holy, likewise free from original sin from birth?

I’m sorry if this question has been addressed elsewhere–please direct me if it has been answered before.
 
=joe370;8445047]Like all of the original reformers, Martin Luther believed that Mary was without sin:
“But the other conception, namely the infusion of the soul, it is piously and suitably believed, was without any sin, so that while the soul was being infused, she would at the same time be cleansed from original sin and adorned with the gifts of God to receive the holy soul thus infused. And thus, in the very moment in which she began to live, she was without all sin…”
Why I agree with the reformers, men like Martin Luther, who agreed with the Catholic Church, that Mary was without sin:
Paul reminds us in passages such as Romans 6, that grace (charis) is the antithesis and conqueror of sin. If Mary was completely full of grace (the antithesis and conqueror of sin) - then logically sin had no dominion over Jesus’ Mother:
Romans 6:14:
*“For sin will have no dominion over you, since you are not under law but under grace.” *
If Mary was not kecharitomene (full of grace) - like the rest of mankind, then it stands to reason that sin, (Satan) - potentially had dominion over Jesus’ mother during her earthly life, like the rest of us. If this is true then there is a chance that sin (Satan) - could have encroached upon Jesus’ mother during her earthly life, like any other human, damning her eternal soul to hell, if she was not properly disposed at the time of her death, like any other person. In other words, the influence of sin (Satan) - which can be so insidious and infectious to anyone not completely endowed with God’s grace, (the antithesis and conqueror of sin) - could have been Mary’s eternal downfall if there was no guarantee that Mary was in a state of grace upon her demise. The same principle apllies to the rest of us.
Question:
  1. How can those who reject the notion that Mary was in a state of grace her entire life, know, with certainty, that Jesus’ mother is now forever with Jesus, and not in hell? Simply saying that Mary was a good person is not any kind of guarantee, just as it isn’t for me or you!
Agreed, Joe.
  1. Just as catholics embrace the teachings of the catholic church regarding Marian doctrines shouldn’t non-catholics embrace the teachings of the original men that spearheaded the protestant reformation, regarding Mary?
Regarding Luther, not necessarily. Virtually all non-Lutheran denominations never were Lutheran. It doesn’t necessarily connect that because Luther said X, all non-Catholics should say X, though it is true that Calvin and Zwingli also seem to profess many of the Marian doctrines,
As for Lutherans, 2 points:
  1. Luther also said regarding marian doctrine (excluding Theotokos and Virgin Birth), that they are adiaphora (IC and Assumption were not defined at that point), and not articles of faith, even though sempre virgo is mentioned in the Formula of Concord.
  2. ISTM that to the extent that they are related to the Incarnation, it seems prudent for us to accept them. At least that’s my take.
Jon
 
Well, the ol’ protestant mantra is: if it’s not in the bible then it’s not to be believed, which really opens up a whole can of problems for protestants regarding things like the Trinity, sola scriptura etc., but I digress…
Joe, that ol’ mantra may be true for some, but I would say not for most, certainly not for the Reformation era communions. Aside from Concord, there’s the 39 Articles, Westminster, and other confessions. I think that ol’ mantra stands taller in the Catholic perception of western non-Catholics than in reality.

Jon

EDIT. PS. I might also add off topic that the Trinity is pretty clear at the Baptism of Christ: God the Son being Baptized, God the Father’s voice from Heaven, God the SPirit descending as a dove.
 
Hi gentlemen–Though I’ve be reading at CAF for going on a year, this is only my second post here, so be nice, please.

This is both a sincere question and something of a reply to Matthew Holford’s post #4: If God could keep Mary --a fully human woman–free from original sin from birth, through no particular pre-birth merit of her own, so that she never sinned, then why did He do that only for her? Why not keep all of us who struggle with sin, all of us who desire to be holy, likewise free from original sin from birth?

I’m sorry if this question has been addressed elsewhere–please direct me if it has been answered before.
This is very unlikely to be the best answer you get, but here goes. God kept Mary free from original sin because she was to be (as the Eastern Christians call her) Theotokos, the God-bearer (I think I’ve got that right); the mother of Jesus.
 
If Mary was not kecharitomene (full of grace) - like the rest of mankind,
This statement is not quite true. There are others that were/are full of grace.

Romans 11:5
Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.

This remnant chose grace, “election”, through faith in Jesus’ sacrifice.
then it stands to reason that sin, (Satan) - potentially had dominion over Jesus’ mother during her earthly life, like the rest of us.
It most certainly did, before her election to grace.
If this is true then there is a chance that sin (Satan) - could have encroached upon Jesus’ mother during her earthly life, like any other human, damning her eternal soul to hell, if she was not properly disposed at the time of her death, like any other person. In other words, the influence of sin (Satan) - which can be so insidious and infectious to anyone not completely endowed with God’s grace, (the antithesis and conqueror of sin) - could have been Mary’s eternal downfall if there was no guarantee that Mary was in a state of grace upon her demise. The same principle apllies to the rest of us.
Quite true.
Question:
  1. How can those who reject the notion that Mary was in a state of grace her entire life, know, with certainty, that Jesus’ mother is now forever with Jesus, and not in hell? Simply saying that Mary was a good person is not any kind of guarantee, just as it isn’t for me or you!
Jesus’ mother is not in hell neither is she in heaven. She is dead.

Psalm 146
Put not your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no help.
4His breath goeth forth, he returneth to his earth; in that very day his thoughts perish.

Ecc.9
5For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten.
  1. Just as catholics embrace the teachings of the catholic church regarding Marian doctrines shouldn’t non-catholics embrace the teachings of the original men that spearheaded the protestant reformation, regarding Mary?
I certainly respect the reformers, however they did not go far enough. My final authority is the bible.
 
Matthew–

Thanks for your reply.🙂 I do think I understand the Theotokos concept, both in Catholicism and Orthodoxy, and I’ve found it very interesting—my predominate area of Biblical interest has leaned toward the Old Testament and Jewish studies, so the idea of attempting a parallel between Mary and the Ark of the Covenant is intriguing.

However, I’m still left wondering why God would exempt Mary from the daily struggle with sin which even saints such as Paul faced—if He could exempt her so easily, why not all of us who truly desire it?

I mean, I have at times wished being less selfish —for example–came more easily to me, but over my years as I’ve matured somewhat as a Christian, I’ve come to appreciate the growth process itself, and have patience, and trust God takes delight in my efforts to choose Him…so I don’t mean to sound whiny, if I do. But, gee, I wouldn’t have minded being born free from sin. Sorry again if that sounds whiny–that’s not how I mean it, but I can’t think of a way to express myself better at the moment.
 
Hi gentlemen–Though I’ve be reading at CAF for going on a year, this is only my second post here, so be nice, please.

This is both a sincere question and something of a reply to Matthew Holford’s post #4: If God could keep Mary --a fully human woman–free from original sin from birth, through no particular pre-birth merit of her own, so that she never sinned, then why did He do that only for her? Why not keep all of us who struggle with sin, all of us who desire to be holy, likewise free from original sin from birth?

I’m sorry if this question has been addressed elsewhere–please direct me if it has been answered before.
Mary is the new Eve that was promised in Genesis after the fall. Eve was born of the hand of God from Adam. When she came into being the world and she were without sin. So it was with Mary the new Eve born into the world without sin.
Your Brother in Christ,
Richard.
 
Their is a great deal of scriptural ignorance In the Protestant churches as regards Mary.I cant remember her ever being mentioned in catechism class when I was a child. Most Protestants don’t even recognise Mary as a perpetual Virgin because of the various references to his brothers and sisters. My own personal belief is that Joseph had a wife who bore him children and when she died he married Mary. Joseph seems to have been quite a bit older than Mary and It also appears that he was long dead before Christ started his mission. So Christ probably did have Brothers and Sisters Step Brothers and Sisters.
If Martin Luther were alive to-day he would probably be horrified by the absence of Mary in the church.Most Protestants would be clueless if you put the question " is Mary without sin ? "
Your Brother in Christ,
Richard.
You are awesome!
 
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