PJM
you stated
“This is but one of the misunderstood passages that Jesus TRIES to share”
About this passage
The words Jesus spoke:
"Man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the Lord.”
Can you please, as asked, explain your stance that this is a misunderstood passage.
Sure: But to make sure that this is not just “MY” opinion;
here first is Haydock’s Bible Commentary on Mt 4:4
“Ver. 4.
- St. Gregory upon this passage says: if our divine Redeemer, when tempted by the devil, answered in so mild a manner, when he could have buried the wicked tempter in the bottom of hell, ought not man, when he suffers anything from his fellow man, rather to improve it to his advantage, than to resent it to his own ruin. Man consists of soul and body;** his body is supported by bread, his soul by the word of God; hence the saying**
[1]I have hammered on this site repeatedly; what seems to me, to be none, or limited acceptance of its reality: TRUTH can be nothing other than SINGULAR per defined issue. Pope Benedict nailed it when he taught: THERE CANNOT BE YOUR TRUTH & MY TRUTH OR THERE WOULD BE NO TRUTH.”
[2] I hold my position because of the multiplicity of non-Catholic- Christian churches;
EACH having its own set of faith beliefs. Indeed churches are defined by their self-proclaimed set of beliefs; and it’s this that gives them their identity.
[3] It is denial, overlooking, or ignorance [BLOCKED understanding as a penalty imposed by the Holy Spirit] of the fact of a singular truth per defined issue is the only, as well as the only logical possibility
1Kgs.4: 29 And God gave Solomon wisdom and understanding beyond measure, and largeness of mind like the sand on the seashore
Luke.24: 45 Then he opened their minds to understand the scriptures
Eph.4: 18 they are darkened in their understanding, alienated from the life of God because of the ignorance that is in them, due to their hardness of heart
[4] As truth can only be singular the preponderance of differing Christian faiths means that all but one of them, at least in part, are false.
Nowhere in the bible is there evidence of GOD ever being OK with competing faiths and religions; hence such to varying degrees are displeasing, but still often still used by God
Missing or ignoring the singular tense WORDS of the Inspired Catholic Authors of the NT 2 Tim 3:16-17
**All scripture is inspired by **God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work”
examples
Mt 10:1-8
Mt 16:15-19
Jh 17:17-20
Mt 28:19-20
Eph 2:19-20
Eph 4:1-7…. NOT recognizing that each of these is directly, precisely and exclusively intended for the Apostles & their successors [compare Mt 10: 5-8 to Mt 28:19-20], proves my point.
It isn’t just that a great many critical teaching are overlooked; rather more common is the reader inclined to give them their own favorable to their beliefs understanding.
Never Ever; can, may or DOES
One verse, passage or teaching have the power or authority to
Invalidate, make void or override another Verse, passage or teaching: Were this even the slightest possibility; [it’s NOT!] it would render the entire Bible useless to teach or learn Christ Faith”
2Peter 1: 20-21
Understanding this first, that no prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretation. For prophecy came not by the will of man at any time: but the holy men of God spoke, inspired by the Holy Ghost.
see 2nd. Peter 3: 14-18
Job.17: 4 “Since thou hast closed their minds to understanding, therefore thou wilt not let them triumph.
2nd. Cor. 4:3-4 “And even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled only to those who are perishing. In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the likeness of God.
Col.2: 8 “See to it that no one makes a prey of you by philosophy and empty deceit, according to human tradition, according to the elemental spirits of the universe, and not according to Christ”
Romans 9: 18 “So then he has mercy upon whomever he wills, and he hardens the heart of whomever he wills.”
“NOT commonly by fellow Catholics”
Does not explain why you believe that passage to be misunderstood,
or how Our Lord ‘tried’ to share.
“But the devil’s poisonous darts are all ‘blocked’ by Jesus with the shield provided by God’s Word” he said, pointing out that Jesus never uses his own words but only God’s Word, and thus, filled with the force of the Holy Spirit, he victoriously crosses the desert”
This passage was spoken by Jesus as it was a passage from God’s Word, and recorded in the Old Testament by Moses.
How is it a Catholic cannot understand such a simple passage?
SEEMS I wasn’t clear enough? Because space is limited on this FORUM, I will only ask: Can ALL Catholics explain what I just did? BUT even beyond this; how many “catholics” don’t keep the 3td Commandment; or don’t avail themselves of Sacramental Confession [1 Jn 5:16-17 & Jn 20:19-23]?
My PRIMARY focus here was Protestants, & I added Catholics in fairness as a after though
Luke 11:28
But he said: Yea rather, blessed are they who hear the word of God, and keep it.
I’m truly SORRY if I offended you, that was not my intent.
GBY
Patrick