73 books vs 66 books

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I think the real test for a Lutheran in terms of the Bible is not what Luther did or defended or promoted (or is defended) etc, but whether Lutheran’s have the Apocrypha in the Bible they choose to use as their Bible of choice today.
And, the term “apocrypha” means “hidden.” I would like to know what is “hidden” in 2 Maccabees, for example. Or Tobit. Or any of them, actually. Consider Judith, which many scratch their heads over. All Israel was delivered from death by the action of a single woman. Whereas Judith used violence, Mary delivered Israel from death by her simple obedience. It helps to draw back and look at the big picture.
 
And, the term “apocrypha” means “hidden.” I would like to know what is “hidden” in 2 Maccabees, for example. Or Tobit. Or any of them, actually. Consider Judith, which many scratch their heads over. All Israel was delivered from death by the action of a single woman. Whereas Judith used violence, Mary delivered Israel from death by her simple obedience. It helps to draw back and look at the big picture.
Sorry my friend, I am only using the word apocrypha because it has been termed that. I suspect the name was chosen because those books were being systematically “hidden” from the protestant Bible.
 
=JohnR77;11879303]We disagree on this point. I do not believe there is any reference that Luther rejected the Deuterocanonical Books until he was challenged with 2 Maccabees. At this point he had to find a reason to reject it. The justification he came up with is why he went on to reject the others as well because they too fit this “justification.”
Hi John,
Yeah, we disagree. Even if i were to concede this point, which I’m not :D, it doesn’t explain the circumstances surrounding the other 6 DC books, which have no doctrinal issues of any particular note. One has to then believe that, since he didn’t agree with 2 Macc, he had to throw them all out. This doesn’t stand to reason, since the precedent of selectivity of the books of the Septuagint was long established. It also doesn’t stand to reason, considering that he translated (with help) and included them in his 1534 Bible. Further, in his prefaces, he speaks very highly of a number of the DC’s, particularly 1 Macc.
Additionally, there were contemporaries of Luther who were not part of the Reformation movement that also disputed the DC books.
I have heard, but so far unable to document, the following:
Luther challenged his debater to show him from the Bible where he was wrong. When the citation from 2 Maccabees was presented Luther’s jaw dropped. We know this because Luther’s friend Philip Melanchthon states as much. To be challenged with a source one does not accept is not an issue, but to be proven wrong with a source a person – at least initially – accepts, is a shocker.
This would presume that Luther had no experience with 2 Macc prior to Leipzig, which I’ve seen no evidence to support.
Yes. Luther seemed to have a Canon with a Canon. He would not omit them entirely as the Church had revered them so, but he did deny that they were the infallible Word of God, just has he also rejected that status to several New Testament Books that taught contrary to his “faith alone” formula.
The dispute of the Antilegomena was a centuries old one, dating back to Eusebius. Luther states his reason for for his disputing them, and only in James does the issue of works and justification come up. So, again, we have the issue of why he wasn’t selective, if doctrine was the case.

Jon
 
I hope that you do not fall into the support group of the man-made “intertestamental period”! This term was made up 400 or so years after the European rebellion. Why is there no mention at all in the early Church fathers, the Gospels or anywhere wlse, of such a silent period of God? Rather clearly, it is because there was no such thing.

Those devout Jews who wrote the DC books were living under the Law of Moses. It was certainly not “between testaments.” How on earth can we allege that God left the Jews with no covenant during this time?

Did not our Lord say “The Law and the Prophets prophesied up to John (Baptist)”? Matthew 11:13. No “silent period” spoken of or even alluded to in the OT or the NT.

Consider: In the immediate pre-Incarnation period, Tobit, 2 Maccabees and Daniel (a DC period writing) are the first to mention the resurrection and eternal life - a totally and completely new concept that suddenly appeared just before the incarnation. Were Martin here, I would ask him (I hope to ask him some fine day): If the Holy Spirit did not inspire the writing of these words immediately before Christ, just WHO DID?
I agree. My point was that Judas Maccabeus is around the time of 170 - 160 BC or so. This is clearly the time leading up to Messiah.

Two things have been helpful for me here: 1) actually reading the DCs, something more Lutherans ought to do, 2) reading Luther’s prefaces to them. I feel I have a better insight to what he’s thinking about them, even if I don’t entirely agree with him.

Jon
 
Sorry my friend, I am only using the word apocrypha because it has been termed that. I suspect the name was chosen because those books were being systematically “hidden” from the protestant Bible.
No problem! I know that this term has been applied to the Deuterocanonical books by those who had no authority to declare them either inspired or non-inspired. They were essentially forced to do something. Fortunately, many denominations are re-evaluating the DC books and realizing that there may indeed be some reason to consider that they are inspired.
 
I agree. My point was that Judas Maccabeus is around the time of 170 - 160 BC or so. This is clearly the time leading up to Messiah.

Two things have been helpful for me here: 1) actually reading the DCs, something more Lutherans ought to do, 2) reading Luther’s prefaces to them. I feel I have a better insight to what he’s thinking about them, even if I don’t entirely agree with him.

Jon
Glad to hear this. There is much more to them than most - even Catholics - first think. And, it is not so much hidden as it is anticipatory in nature. Another reason to re-consider the DC books is that it is quite credibly believed that Daniel was also written in this time frame. All of the books indicate, in one manner or another, a world-changing event to come.
 
I have concern about the 7 extra books. I notice there are flaws in them, so what should i do?

like
carm.org/errors-apocrypha

it comes down to savlation and not going to hell
Fr. of Jazz posted good verses to refute Matt Carm’s article. Here are some more.

Magic

Therefore the people came to Moses, and said, We have sinned, for we have spoken against the Lord, and against thee; pray unto the Lord, that he take away the serpents from us. And Moses prayed for the people. And the Lord said unto Moses, Make thee a fiery serpent, and set it upon a pole: and it shall come to pass, that every one that is bitten, when he looketh upon it, shall live. And Moses made a serpent of brass, and put it upon a pole, and it came to pass, that if a serpent had bitten any man, when he beheld the serpent of brass, he lived. (Numbers 21:7-9)

If we were applying the same standards that Slick applies, this would be an example of healing by a magical talisman. Obviously that’s a cariacture. Basically, anything supernatural would be regarded as superstition. What about when Jesus cured the blind man in John 9 by rubbing mud in his eyes? Was that being superstitious about mud? What about when Jesus cured the blind man in Mark 7 by sticking his fingers in his ears, spitting and touching the man’s tongue? Was Jesus casting a magic spell? This is a ridiculous charge that only an atheist could seriously make.

Alms

Wherefore, O king, let my counsel be acceptable unto thee, and break off thy sins by righteousness, and thine iniquities by shewing mercy to the poor; if it may be a lengthening of thy tranquillity. (Daniel 4:27)

This verse says the same thing as Tobit. It is in the Hebrew version of Daniel that Protestants use. Is Matt Slick going to throw out Daniel from his Bible now because it teaches “salvation by alms?” The answer is no, because Matt Slick does not reject the deuterocanonical books by any objective principle, but because of the Protestant tradition that he received from other men.
 
One thing worth considering is the Protestant objection that the Church had not definitively ruled on the status of the deuterocanonical books prior to the Council of Trent, saying that the earlier councils were merely local councils. However, this does not appear to be so. The Council of Florence declared the inspiration of the Bible in all its parts, listing the seventy-three book canon explicitly.

[The Holy Roman Church] professes that one and the same God is the author of the old and the new Testament — that is, the law and the prophets, and the gospel — since the saints of both testaments spoke under the inspiration of the same Spirit. It accepts and venerates their books, whose titles are as follows.

Five books of Moses, namely Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy; Joshua, Judges, Ruth, four books of Kings, two of Paralipomenon, Esdras, Nehemiah, Tobit, Judith, Esther, Job, Psalms of David, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, Song of Songs, Wisdom, Ecclesiasticus, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Baruch, Ezechiel, Daniel; the twelve minor prophets, namely Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi; two books of the Maccabees; the four gospels of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; fourteen letters of Paul, to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, to the Galatians, to the Ephesians, to the Philippians, two to the Thessalonians, to the Colossians, two to Timothy, to Titus, to Philemon, to the Hebrews; two letters of Peter, three of John, one of James, one of Jude; Acts of the Apostles; Apocalypse of John.
ewtn.com/library/COUNCILS/FLORENCE.HTM

I think the error is equating “canonicity” with “inspiration” as if they were the same.
 
HOW, Did they decide what was/wasn’t inspired, what to include/exclude?
The Catholic Church decided on the basis of Apostolic Tradition. It’s that simple: The Apostles used them, they had been read in all the churches, especially the Apostolic Sees (5 of them), since the beginning.

The Catechism of the Catholic Church, paragraph 120, states it clearly.

Subrosa
 
I think “rejected” is a very appropriate description. When I read the “proof” that Martin Luther affirmed confession he made it a mere generic confession such as can be found in the Lord’s prayer “Forgive us our trespasses”, but he then gives a provision that if you are weak and you really can’t handle not confessing because you are weak then do it, but otherwise it is no real benefit to those more secure. Confession is for the timid.

Do you have a link to Kimberly’s conversion story to which you speak (I only know Scotts’)?

I think the real test for a Lutheran in terms of the Bible is not what Luther did or defended or promoted (or is defended) etc, but whether Lutheran’s have the Apocrypha in the Bible they choose to use as their Bible of choice today.
Thank you for your comments!

Kimberly Hahn’s conversion story is here

zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m1/kmcnv.html

.
 
=Darryl B;11880289]I think “rejected” is a very appropriate description. When I read the “proof” that Martin Luther affirmed confession he made it a mere generic confession such as can be found in the Lord’s prayer “Forgive us our trespasses”, but he then gives a provision that if you are weak and you really can’t handle not confessing because you are weak then do it, but otherwise it is no real benefit to those more secure. Confession is for the timid.
I think you are quite incorrect. Luther and Lutherans are not timid about the necessity of confession/ Holy Absolution. Simply because it isn’t exactly the same as Catholic practice does not make it timid or generic, and it is highly different than the Lord’s Prayer. It is Absolution, from the pastor in Christ’s stead, that distinguishes Holy Absolution, the sacrament.
I think the real test for a Lutheran in terms of the Bible is not what Luther did or defended or promoted (or is defended) etc, but whether Lutheran’s have the Apocrypha in the Bible they choose to use as their Bible of choice today.
This is an indictment that a agree with, of American and English speaking Lutherans! We as Lutherans in American need to return to using the 74 book Bibles that our German counterparts have used, at least since 1534.

Jon
 
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