A better sapient / sentient being

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How do you separate “redemptive” suffering from sadism? Objectively, please!
Sadism or masochism is deriving pleasure from inflicting or experiencing pain. Redemptive suffering is accepting whatever circumstances cause you pain, and letting it shape your character in a positive way, and offering/joining with the suffering of Jesus in hopes that it can also have a redemptive meaning for the sins of others
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Abrosz:
You are always welcome - nope sincerely “begged” - to teach me, just HOW can I have actual access to God, here and now.
Define access
Can you answer the question, and define what you mean by access?
 
Fair question.

If you’re trying to find out the “why” of undeserved suffering, you came to the wrong place.
Of course, every place is the wrong place because we simply don’t know .
Of course you don’t know. Nobody does. But to believe something for which there is no explanation - is the quintessential case of “blind faith”. And Catholics fight tooth and nail against being described to have blind faith.
But what sets Christianity apart from other religions is that we believe in a God who suffered alongside us.
He didn’t have to. He chose to.
This would require a much longer answer than the available space. But let’s have a short one. You said: “He did not have to. He chose to.” And that describes self-afflicted or self-imposed suffering. Which is his business. He could have forgiven our trespasses without the self-imposed suffering, so it was useless.

Again, if anyone chooses unnecessary suffering, that is his business. For that he deserves no praise, only some amused shrug.
 
They are viewed as possible improvements BY ME .
🤣
Well… that proves it, then.
🤣

(Where’s that vaunted ‘rationality’ that you continually claim for yourself? Just because you think they’re improvements doesn’t mean that they actually are.)
according to your method, he knows “best” and that this event would be in the best interest of the victim.
Straw man. Christians wouldn’t make this claim.
He could have forgiven our trespasses without the self-imposed suffering, so it was useless.
He “could have”? In your opinion, but apparently, not God’s. Why should we accept your opinion over God’s?
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Abrosz:
Again, if anyone chooses unnecessary suffering, that is his business.
You’ve moved the goalposts. Did you think no one would notice? On one hand, you discuss “self-imposed suffering”, and then you arbitrarily change it to “unnecessary suffering”. Not cool. Not only is the shift unwarranted, but also, you can’t claim the perspective necessary in order to demonstrate “unnecessary”. At best, you might claim “I personally don’t see how it’s necessary.” That would be a true and defensible statement. But that’s about the extent of the kind of valid claim you might make.
 
He could have forgiven our trespasses without the self-imposed suffering, so it was useless.
Was it?
How do you know?
I mean, what makes you so smart that you can be sure of the mind of God?
I mean, are you ablel to entertain the idea that you’re not the smartest person in the room?
Or the entire universe?

I get that this isn’t an easy idea to take. If you’ve ever had the kind of suffering that makes you want to scream in agony, it’s really hard to accept, and everybody understands this.

But is it possible that an intellect greater than yours may be able to see things you can’t?

Again, I see this as an insight, as opposed to an answer. 🙂
 
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Was it?
How do you know ?
I mean, what makes you so smart that you can be sure of the mind of God?
There is this thing called “reason and logic”. And whatever God’s mind would be, it MUST follow reason and logic. Do you have a problem with the assertion that God COULD forgive any of our trespasses without the alleged “self-sacrifice”? If and when someone misbehaves, can you just forgive them without some sacrifice? Why do you think that God cannot do what you can do?
But is it possible that an intellect greater than yours may be able to see things you can’t?
Sure… but only an irrational and illogical “intellect” could find unnecessary pain and suffering a “good” solution.

Let me add: We have no direct contact with God. We cannot “submit” God to an intelligence test. Everything you (and all the aplogists) say is “assumption”. Which is fine, as long and you realize and admit it. So, how “smart” is God? All we can go on is the arguments of the apologists. And most of the apologists are pretty incompetent. Sorry to say it, but that is truth.
 
Sure… but only an irrational and illogical “intellect” could find unnecessary pain and suffering a “good” solution.
Again, you’re baldly asserting “unnecessary” suffering. You haven’t demonstrated that this is the case, and to Scarlett’s point, you don’t have sufficient perspective to make that claim. (It’s ok, though: none of us creatures do.)
All we can go on is the arguments of the apologists. And most of the apologists are pretty incompetent. Sorry to say it, but that is truth.
You realize that you’re an ‘apologist’ yourself, right? And yeah, I’d agree with your claim about apologists in that context. 😉
 
Do you have a problem with the assertion that God COULD forgive any of our trespasses without the alleged “self-sacrifice”? If and when someone misbehaves, can you just forgive them without some sacrifice?
I have no problem with the idea that God could simply hand-wave our forgiveness.
But because it didnt happen that way, and if I accept that God (who created an entire universe compare to that I have created nothing) knows more than me, there must be a good reason for it.
I’m not too puffed up with pride that I think I know it all.
 
But because it didnt happen that way, and if I accept that God (who created an entire universe compare to that I have created nothing) knows more than me, there must be a good reason for it.
I think that’s precisely the way that the Church describes it, isn’t it? “Not necessary, per se, but fitting”… right?
 
I think that’s precisely the way that the Church describes it, isn’t it? “Not necessary, per se, but fitting”… right?
I’m not actually sure.
But it’s how I understand it
 
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0Scarlett_nidiyilii:
But because it didnt happen that way, and if I accept that God (who created an entire universe compare to that I have created nothing) knows more than me, there must be a good reason for it.
I think that’s precisely the way that the Church describes it, isn’t it? “Not necessary, per se, but fitting”… right?
This, I think, would be how St. Thomas Aquinas would put it. Having read some of the Summa for a class, this verbiage sounds like something he would write: “God could have done this some other way, but the way He did it was fitting.” Not sure if it applies in this particular situation but it sounds familiar.

Pax
 
I’m not too puffed up with pride that I think I know it all.
I second that. Unfortunately, it is typical for atheists to be prideful, to think they know better than God and to subject God to their terms. It reminds me of the bad thief on the cross, he wanted to be saved but on HIS terms.
 
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0Scarlett_nidiyilii:
I’m not too puffed up with pride that I think I know it all.
I second that. Unfortunately, it is typical for atheists to be prideful, to think they know better than God and to subject God to their terms. It reminds me of the bad thief on the cross, he wanted to be saved but on HIS terms.
Mmm. I often think I know better than someone I don’t believe exists.
 
There is this thing called “reason and logic”. And whatever God’s mind would be, it MUST follow reason and logic.
Logic and reason based on which axioms?

You have to start somewhere. In logic you start with an axiom or a premise which is taken to be true on the basis of faith. Yes, faith. So what are these axioms that God must abide by?

The existence of God is one such axiom. God, or the concept of a being beyond the natural world cannot be proven using scientific methods. Scientific methods can only describe natural not supernatural processes. There are other fields of philosophy which do not rely on the scientific method of inquiry.

In this thread, it seems like you’re asking us to prove the existence of God, using your own subjective criteria, your own axioms. Failure to prove that God obeys your axioms means that he does not exist. You cannot use an axiom to disprove another axiom.
 
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You have to start somewhere. In logic you start with an axiom or a premise which is taken to be true on the basis of faith. Yes, faith.
You are playing with words. The axioms must be self-evident, and that has nothing to do with faith.
The existence of God is one such axiom.
It is not self-evident, so it is not an axiom.
In this thread, it seems like you’re asking us to prove the existence of God, using your own subjective criteria, your own axioms.
You are mistaken. I merely contemplate on a possible, different sapient/sentient being - based upon the existing beings we all can observe. The members of the flora and fauna have a bunch of excellent features, which would excellent to combine into a hypothetical sentient/sapient beings.

I even gave a few examples. That is all.
 
To get back to the thread topic, I would say that fiction has given us great examples of what nature could produce if God were willing.

The sentient Ents of Lord of the Rings come to mind, how their slow and methodical speech wins the day for deliberate action.

Where could I start with the Chronicles of Narnia? From the helpful little mice who chew away Aslan’s bonds on the Stone Table, to the noble Centaur warriors who defend Him in battle, to the… adorable Reepicheep who gains Heaven in a little kayak, the animal kingdom is accorded a nobility here that may not otherwise be evident.

I think Babylon 5 has some fascinating concepts of sentience. The Minbari believe that the Universe is sentient in itself–not an uncommon human belief. Humans themselves evolve into beings of light and energy after millions of years. The Vorlons and the Shadows provide two opposing views of “ancient aliens” who have marvelous features: the Vorlons are beings of light cloaked in ordinary “encounter suits” and they fashion living vessels not unlike squids. The Shadows are invisible on human light spectra and also employ biotechnology, even to enslave humans in psionic traps.

To stray even further from a Catholic viewpoint, I give you the Neanderthals of Robert J. Sawyer’s Neanderthal Parallax. They arose during a polar magnetic shift, when Homo sapiens lost the ability to reason. They have a unique structure for living, a “hub and spoke” habitat where the males live on the outskirts in homosexual relationships, and only join the females “when Two become One”. They have implanted themselves with Companion devices which are more or less permanent mobile phones. And their cultures clash when they come into contact with humans via a parallel universe portal.
 
To get back to the thread topic, I would say that fiction has given us great examples of what nature could produce if God were willing.
I am only talking about observable, existing features in the flora and fauna. Not fiction, even though it is also fun.
 
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Anesti33:
To get back to the thread topic, I would say that fiction has given us great examples of what nature could produce if God were willing.
I am only talking about observable, existing features in the flora and fauna. Not fiction, even though it is also fun.
If you’re going to pooh-pooh every valid contribution we have to this thread, and we’re going to pooh-pooh every time you bash Catholic teaching, this is not going to be a happy relationship.
 
If you’re going to pooh-pooh every valid contribution we have to this thread, and we’re going to pooh-pooh every time you bash Catholic teaching, this is not going to be a happy relationship.
It is not mandatory to participate.
 
You are playing with words. The axioms must be self-evident, and that has nothing to do with faith.
Self-evident you say?

I present to you two opposing axioms in the field of mathematics. One is the assertion that space itself is flat, giving rise to Euclidean geometry and the other that space isn’t flat giving rise to non-Euclidean geometry. So which one of these opposing axioms is self-evident and which is not?

You may want to read this. The requirement that axioms be self-evident is fundamentally incorrect. See the link below.

https://webhome.phy.duke.edu/~rgb/Philosophy/axioms/axioms/node27.html

An excerpt from the link.

What’s an Axiom​

So, just what is an axiom? Even if you know (or think that you know) it doesn’t hurt to do an authoritative check. Let’s start with a dictionary definition:

From Webster’s Revised Unabridged Dictionary (1913) [web1913]: Axiom, n.-- L. axioma, Gr.; that which is thought worthy, that which is assumed, a basis of demonstration, a principle, fr.; to think worthy, fr.; worthy, weighing as much as; cf.; to lead, drive, also to weigh so much: cf F. axiome. See Agent. 1. (Logic and Math.) A self-evident and necessary truth, or a proposition whose truth is so evident as first sight that no reasoning or demonstration can make it plainer; a proposition which it is necessary to take for granted; as, The whole is greater than a part;'' A thing can not, at the same time, be and not be.’’ 2. An established principle in some art or science, which, though not a necessary truth, is universally received; as, the axioms of political economy.

These definitions are the root of much Evil in the worlds of philosophy, religion, and political discourse. These first of these two definitions is almost universally taught (generally in Euclidean Geometry, which is the only serious whole-brain math course that nearly all citizens in at least the United States are required to take to graduate from high school and which is therefore not infrequently the only math outside of a few courses in symbolic or predicate logic and maybe a course in algebra that a humanities-loving philosophy major is typically exposed to). A relatively few students may move on and hear the term used in the second, wishful'' sense (wishful in that by calling an established principle an axiom’’ one is generally trying to convince the listener that it is indeed a ``self-evident and necessary truth’’).

Alas, they are both fundamentally incorrect (although the second is closer than the first). When I say incorrect, I mean that they are completely, formally, and technically incorrect , not just a little bit wrong in detail. Neither of these is what an axiom is, in mathematics (from which technical usage the term’s definition is derived)5.1.
 
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I present to you two opposing axioms in the field of mathematics.
Nope. They are both valid, and they lead to different systems. Actually there are three, the Euclidean, the Riemann (spherical) and the Gauss-Bolyai-Lobatchevsky (hyperbolic) geometries.

Three different concepts, leading to three different systems. And none of them requires “faith”.
 
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