P
PC_Master
Guest
On much of what Jesus said, we have multiple attestations of it, written by eye-witnesses to the events in question. I don’t understand why there would be a question raised on that account.1 day or 1 year or 200 years after the incident, the Apostles and their scribes have written most of the NT within that span of time and I see nobody raising a question that some parts of NT are unacceptable on grounds that we have ‘no clear record’ of what Jesus really said.
Ireneaus and other early writers wrote about succession of the bishops of Rome. What they do not do is write about these men as leaders of the earthly church.Are you saying Ireneaus’ writings and the rest of the ECFs describing the behavior of and stating the succession of popes were spurious simply because it was done 200 years later?
This is an important distinction that seems to be being ignored. That someone says X was the bishop of Rome does not mean that X was also pope. Ireneaus was not a proponent of Roman primacy in my opinion. Wikipedia’s page on the subject is pretty good in terms of explaining how and why Ireneaus might have written things in the way he did.
More appropriately, the burden of proof is on the person making the affirmative claim…usually. However, any claim can be seen as being affirmative, so either side can be seen to hold the burden of proof.The burden of proof is on the accuser.
But let’s consider the logic for a moment. Let’s say you’re right. Linus was the pope. Now, if this was so, how might we prove it? There might be oral testimony to the fact, which might survive for generations (as you no-doubt claim). There also might be written records (and in fact, there should be written records).
Now, let’s take the alternate option – if I’m right, and Linus was indeed bishop of Rome, but was not the pope, how might we prove it? What evidence is there that could or more importantly, should exist? I honestly can’t think of any. If the papacy didn’t exist, and if such a heresy didn’t exist at the time, there’d have been no one to write against it, and also there’d have been no one writing in favor of it. And that’s precisely what we see.
So, on the one hand, the papacy existed, unchallenged for hundreds of years. Then, out of nowhere centuries later, people challenge the papacy. How does that make sense? On the other hand, perhaps the papacy developed over time, and the more it developed, the more it was challenged. The latter seems reasonable, and fits with the evidence.
