A Difference of 7 Books

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Marie_Gregg

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Hello, All,

So-called Protestant Bibles generally contains 66 books. So-called Catholic Bibles (I hate both those terms) generally contain 73. (Correct me if I’m wrong; this was the information I found).

Is there a major difference in understanding because of a difference of 7 books? What doctrines or practices are contained in these books?

Thanks!
 
Marie_Gregg said:
Hello, All,

So-called Protestant Bibles generally contains 66 books. So-called Catholic Bibles (I hate both those terms) generally contain 73. (Correct me if I’m wrong; this was the information I found).

Is there a major difference in understanding because of a difference of 7 books? What doctrines or practices are contained in these books?

Thanks!
Click to expand...
Well the first Protestant Bibles had 73,not the 66 books. If I am correct,the 66 books became more common after 1880,due to anti-Catholic sentiments. What doctrines and practices in those 7 books? Prayer for the dead and purgatory.

BTW: Some NT books were also debatable and yet is never thrown into the mix either?
 
Nicea325 said:
Well the first Protestant Bibles had 73,not the 66 books. If I am correct,the 66 books became more common after 1880,due to anti-Catholic sentiments. What doctrines and practices in those 7 books? Prayer for the dead and purgatory.

BTW: Some NT books were also debatable and yet is never thrown into the mix either?
Click to expand...
Huh. I did not know the bit about 1880. I’m going to have to do more research into this.
 
Marie_Gregg said:
Hello, All,

So-called Protestant Bibles generally contains 66 books. So-called Catholic Bibles (I hate both those terms) generally contain 73. (Correct me if I’m wrong; this was the information I found).

Is there a major difference in understanding because of a difference of 7 books? What doctrines or practices are contained in these books?

Thanks!
Click to expand...
2 Maccabees features prayer for those who have died, and Tobit gives us an additional angel name :D.
 
Nicea325 said:
Well the first Protestant Bibles had 73,not the 66 books. If I am correct,the 66 books became more common after 1880,due to anti-Catholic sentiments. What doctrines and practices in those 7 books? Prayer for the dead and purgatory.

BTW: Some NT books were also debatable and yet is never thrown into the mix either?
Click to expand...
If I remember correctly it wasn’t due to “anti-Catholic” sentiments…but due to the cost of printing Bibles…I have several Bibles from the 1850’s and 60’s…which do not have the apoc/dutero books…

The Bible I now use has more books than your Catholic Bibles do…the Orthodox have more books…the Oxford Study Bible Expanded Edition includes those books which are used by Orthodox but the Catholics removed:)…it was published in the 1970’s under the title “Common Bible” and was an ecumenical edition of the scriptures.
 
Publisher said:
If I remember correctly it wasn’t due to “anti-Catholic” sentiments…but due to the cost of printing Bibles…I have several Bibles from the 1850’s and 60’s…which do not have the apoc/dutero books…

The Bible I now use has more books than your Catholic Bibles do…the Orthodox have more books…the Oxford Study Bible Expanded Edition includes those books which are used by Orthodox but the Catholics removed:)…it was published in the 1970’s under the title “Common Bible” and was an ecumenical edition of the scriptures.
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Cost? But how convenient only those 7 books were to expensive to print? 😛 Why not any other books? Yes the Orthodox do have a larger canon than Catholics. I’ll be honest, I am not one to really make a big fuss over the canon. I accept the canon the church gave us,yet I do read other non-Catholic Bibles.
 
Marie_Gregg said:
Hello, All,

So-called Protestant Bibles generally contains 66 books. So-called Catholic Bibles (I hate both those terms) generally contain 73. (Correct me if I’m wrong; this was the information I found).

Is there a major difference in understanding because of a difference of 7 books? What doctrines or practices are contained in these books?

Thanks!
Click to expand...
Have a look at this Protestant bible time-line. Scrolling from left to right, from Genesis to Revelation, you will note that there is a huge gap in it. There is no scripture in the 66 book bible that covers this gap. What period is it? The 200 years leading up to Christ’s birth. Would God really leave a portion of His plan of salvation with no scripture?

The Catholic and Orthodox Churches have scripture which fills this gap. Scripture which mentions the resurrection three times. Which scripture is that?

1 and 2 Maccabees
 
po18guy said:
Have a look at this Protestant bible time-line. Scrolling from left to right, from Genesis to Revelation, you will note that there is a huge gap in it. There is no scripture in the 66 book bible that covers this gap. What period is it? The 200 years leading up to Christ’s birth. Would God really leave a portion of His plan of salvation with no scripture?

The Catholic and Orthodox Churches have scripture which fills this gap. Scripture which mentions the resurrection three times. Which scripture is that?

1 and 2 Maccabees
Click to expand...
:dancing:
 
po18guy said:
Have a look at this Protestant bible time-line. Scrolling from left to right, from Genesis to Revelation, you will note that there is a huge gap in it. There is no scripture in the 66 book bible that covers this gap. What period is it? The 200 years leading up to Christ’s birth. Would God really leave a portion of His plan of salvation with no scripture?

The Catholic and Orthodox Churches have scripture which fills this gap. Scripture which mentions the resurrection three times. Which scripture is that?

1 and 2 Maccabees
Click to expand...
Isn’t this referred to in Protestant circles as the “Period of Great Silence” or something like that? I just finished “The Great Adventure” by Jeff Cavins and Dr. Tim Gray, which is an excellent Bible study series. There is no way to read the narrative books of the Bible without including 1 and 2 Maccabees and the Jews who didn’t accept the septuagint are missing a very important piece of their history.
 
SteveVH said:
Isn’t this referred to in Protestant circles as the “Period of Great Silence” or something like that? I just finished “The Great Adventure” by Jeff Cavins and Dr. Tim Gray, which is an excellent Bible study series. There is no way to read the narrative books of the Bible without including 1 and 2 Maccabees and the Jews who didn’t accept the septuagint are missing a very important piece of their history.
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According to my NIV Study Bible it is called the Intertestamental Period.
 
SteveVH said:
Isn’t this referred to in Protestant circles as the “Period of Great Silence” or something like that? I just finished “The Great Adventure” by Jeff Cavins and Dr. Tim Gray, which is an excellent Bible study series. There is no way to read the narrative books of the Bible without including 1 and 2 Maccabees and the Jews who didn’t accept the septuagint are missing a very important piece of their history.
Click to expand...
If I were protestant, this would concern me. A scriptural gap at any point in human history should raise eyebrows, but an immediately pre-Messianic gap?

As well, the three-times mention of the resurrection in 2 Maccabees is certainly predictive of the Messiah. As well, Jesus disputed with the Sadducees, who denied the resurrection.
 
I also note that the name Emmaus (Luke 24) (where Jesus revealed Himself in the breaking of the bread), is mentioned first in 1 Maccabees. How many times? Three.

Granted, it could have been a different Emmaus, but it is still the only pre-Christian biblical reference to that name, and occurs three times in the same books as the first three mentions of the resurrection. In Luke 24, Jesus appeared in Emmaus on the day of His resurrection.

No explanation is needed for when and why scripture exists in history. What needs explanation is when and why it is claimed not to exist.
 
po18guy said:
Have a look at this Protestant bible time-line. Scrolling from left to right, from Genesis to Revelation, you will note that there is a huge gap in it. There is no scripture in the 66 book bible that covers this gap. What period is it? The 200 years leading up to Christ’s birth. Would God really leave a portion of His plan of salvation with no scripture?

The Catholic and Orthodox Churches have scripture which fills this gap. Scripture which mentions the resurrection three times. Which scripture is that?

1 and 2 Maccabees
Click to expand...
While I would include the deuterocanonical books as Scripture… the time frame isn’t a very convincing argument as far as written revelation goes. How much revelation was written down from the creation of the world until Moses was an adult?
 
IggyAntiochus said:
While I would include the deuterocanonical books as Scripture… the time frame isn’t a very convincing argument as far as written revelation goes. How much revelation was written down from the creation of the world until Moses was an adult?
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All of it was related to Moses (and the unknown inspired authors) by divine revelation. But, isn’t it strange that the Catholic and Orthodox, unarguably the oldest Churches, have scripture to cover the 200 years prior to Christ, and virtually no one else does?
 
po18guy said:
All of it was related to Moses (and the unknown inspired authors) by divine revelation. But, isn’t it strange that the Catholic and Orthodox, unarguably the oldest Churches, have scripture to cover the 200 years prior to Christ, and virtually no one else does?
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Quest? Does Jesus quote anything from 1 or 2 Maccabees ?
or is there anywhere in the NT referring to the Maccabees?
Just wondering as I can’t recall.

Thank you.
 
Marie_Gregg said:
Huh. I did not know the bit about 1880. I’m going to have to do more research into this.
Click to expand...
Yes…it was a bible society…british in fact…that decided not to print their bibles with the DC books, which protestants call the apocrypha…to save on printing costs and paper.

The decision was made in the 1820s or so…and since then, the protestant bibles have had the 7 books removed.

But I read (forgot the link) that they rescinded this sometime in the 1960s or so…but the damage had been done…

So it was a man made decision, no one with Church authority decided to remove them.

Another fact, some protestant denoms cite a so called Jewish council of Jamnia supposedly done sometime in AD90 or so…to justify their 66 book canon.

Here is a link…fisheaters.com/septuagint.html

and here…catholicdefense.blogspot.com/2011/07/can-protestants-rely-upon-council-of.html

4.The Jamnia School Was Very Anti-Christian: While we can’t say that the Jamnia rabbinical school ever produced a Biblical canon, we can point to a major contribution of the school. It produced an ugly prayer called the Birkat haMinim, which cursed the Christians as sectarians, and prayed to God that for these “sectarians,” “let there be no hope, and may all the evil in an instant be destroyed and all Thy enemies be cut down swiftly; and the evil ones uproot and break and destroy and humble soon in our days. Blessed art You, LORD, who breaks down enemies and humbles sinners.” This prayer was to be prayed every Sabbath, and it forced the Jewish Christians to stop worshiping with the non-Christian Jews in synagogue.
 
po18guy said:
All of it was related to Moses (and the unknown inspired authors) by divine revelation. But, isn’t it strange that the Catholic and Orthodox, unarguably the oldest Churches, have scripture to cover the 200 years prior to Christ, and virtually no one else does?
Click to expand...
Only strange as a 20th century phenomenon. The oldest Protestant communion had them up until they switched to English translations in the 20th century. The Anglicans until the 19th (as far as I know)
 
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