A married man's dilemma

[Ron_Conte]

This is patently false.

It is a grave sin.

For it to be mortal, a sin has to be grave, and done with full knowledge and full consent. Extenuating circumstances can reduce culpability. On this forum we have no way of knowing if it is mortal or not. This is something the spouses in the OP’s post will have to address with their respective confessors.

Terminology is not doctrine.

Any act that has grave matter is objectively a mortal sin. The term objective mortal sin indicates an act with grave matter, which will be an actual mortal sin if the act is chosen with full knowledge and full consent.

Some definitive magisterial documents, e.g. Council of Florence, and On the Beatific Vision of God (Pope Benedict 12), use the term actual mortal sin, implying that there are some mortal sins that are not actual sin. The term ‘mortal sin’ is not always used as synonymous with actual mortal sin.

There is nothing wrong with a post that refers to an act that is objectively gravely disordered as an objective mortal sin, or simply a mortal sin.

 

[Prime]

Terminology is not doctrine.

Any act that has grave matter is objectively a mortal sin. The term objective mortal sin indicates an act with grave matter, which will be an actual mortal sin if the act is chosen with full knowledge and full consent.

Some definitive magisterial documents, e.g. Council of Florence, and On the Beatific Vision of God (Pope Benedict 12), use the term actual mortal sin, implying that there are some mortal sins that are not actual sin. The term ‘mortal sin’ is not always used as synonymous with actual mortal sin.

There is nothing wrong with a post that refers to an act that is objectively gravely disordered as an objective mortal sin, or simply a mortal sin.

In jurisprudence, there is what they call mitigating circumstances that lessen the gravity of the offense. That might be true in the case of the OP. This means the font of “full consent” is diminished.

 

[djeter]

I would like to ask this question as my first post:
DH and DW have no marital issues whatsoever and both are healthy. DW refuses to have marital embrace for simple reason that she is not in the mood and this goes on for more than 2 months at a time. When asked, she just explains that she no longer is interested in marital embrace and it’s a burden on her part. DH does not want to commit any sin whatsover inspite of the situation but gives in to temptation and masturbates. Did DH commit mortal sin? Did DW commit any sin?

I’m sorry for your troubles and have been a little astonished at some of the “advice” you’ve been on the receiving end here. I hope it doesn’t put you off seeking more and better advice.

dj