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Fidelis
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Hmmm…that’s wierd. The one on my original post (#37) still works. Or try this one:Fidelis,
That link doesn’t work.
catholic.com/library/Peter_and_the_Papacy.asp
Hmmm…that’s wierd. The one on my original post (#37) still works. Or try this one:Fidelis,
That link doesn’t work.
Finally worked! I persevered trying to open it until it finally gave in. It must be a “very” busy page.Hmmm…that’s wierd. The one on my original post (#37) still works. Or try this one:
catholic.com/library/Peter_and_the_Papacy.asp
Sorry, can’t be done. This is a unique instance and Jesus was employing a “play on words” to express His point. Jesus responds to Peter’s “emphatic,” with another equally “emphatic.” Peter says, “You are the Messiah, Son of the living God; Jesus replies, “You are Peter” (Petros), used here as a proper name but not losing its meaning as a common noun. The name itself was bestowed on Simon when he first encountered Jesus (Jn. 1:42), but under the form of is Aramaic equivalent, Cephas. In Matt. 16:18 attention is called, not to giving the name, but to its meaning. In classical Greek the word means a piece of rock, as in Homer, of Ajax throwing a stone at Hector (“Iliad,” vii, 270), or of Patroclus grasping and hiding in his hand a jagged stone (Iliad,” xvi, 734).Linus, since you like the Greek so much I was hoping you’d be so kind so as to show me some verses where these two “rock” words are used.
I GUESS WE CATHOLICS HAVE OUR WORK CUT OUR FOR US.DOXA:
Returning to your “simple” math:
The world’s population is slightly over 6 billion today. By all acounts, there are about 2 billion Christians.
Of the 2 billion Christians, there are slightly over 1 billion Catholics AND PERHAPS 30% ARE STRONG PRACTICING CATHOLICS (East and West)!
Of the remaining 900 million Christians, 600 million are Protestants and pseudo-Christians while between 250 and 300 million are Orthodox (Oriental and Eastern).
(N.B. There are about 1.2 billion Muslims [Sunni, Shi’ite, and other sects] and about 800 million Hindus, both more than the Orthodox of all nationalities!)
Just some hard facts, my friend!![]()
You were doing OK until you got to this. This a classic case of wishful thinking–trying to make the text say what you want it to say based on a pre-supposition.In Matt. 16:18 attention is called, not to giving the name, but to its meaning.
This is a pretty common objection. Since I know you read the article I provided, you must know that this has been answered.In “…epi taute te petra” (upon this rock) the feminine form means rock, as distinguished from a stone or fragment of rock.
Again, this is an interpretation based on a pre-supposition.It is true Jesus employs Peter and the meaning of Peter’s name (Petros) in what He expresses in Matt. 16:18. But it’s the meaning of his name, not Peter himself, that is significant to Christ’s play on words. Peter is personally significant only in WHAT he confesses regarding WHO Jesus is, and the Divine means BY which it was revealed to him (the Father).
The inapplicabilty of this passage has been pointed out.Hence, for this reason Paul says that the Church is being built upon the foundation of the Apostles and N.T. prophets, Jesus Christ Himself being the corner stone (Eph. 2:20-22).
This too has been pointed out as being irrelevant. We’re starting to go in a loop.Notice Paul, in Ephesians, does not recognize Peter alone as any type of foundation. Such a notion is completely foreign to any of the Books of the N.T. If this was the meaning of Matt. 16:18, then it would have been a major theme throughout the Epistles. Paul would have constantly pointed his converts to Peter, as would have John, Luke, Jude, the writer of Hebrews, even Peter himself. But nothing, nada, zilch to that effect. All point to Christ, and Christ alone that “the word of the cross should not be made void” (cf. 1 Cor. 1:10-18).
Hi cazayoux… no apostolic succession !!! …
what about …
Matt 28:19-20 ("… to the end of the age …")
1 Cor 12:28 (“apostles, prophets, teachers”)
Acts 1:15-26 (filling Judas’s position - he was gone, yet the office remained)
1 Tim 1:18 (Paul passes on authority to Timothy)
1 Cor 4:17 (instruction to respect Timothy - FULL authority)
2 Tim 1: 13-14 (asserting his teaching authority)
2 Tim 2: 2 (4 generations of apostolic succession in this line)
Titus 1:5-7 (appoint elders)
1 Tim 1:3; 4:11-13 (“command and teach these things”)
2 Tim 1:6 (laying on of hands … to ordain others)
1 Tim 4:14; 5:22 (“which was conferred on you … hands”, “lay hands”)
c’moooooooon …
michel
It should be pointed out that there is significant unfaithfulness in the 600 mil protestants and 250 Orthodox as well. It is more difficult to put a number on it with the Protestants because they have various standards as to what a “faithful” protestant is. I know many Protestants who never go to Church and don’t open their Bibles (by the way I heard on Protestant radio that about half ever read their bibles at all). Yet call themselves born again Christian. I am sure there are similar considerations when discussing Orthodox “faithful”.DOXA:
Returning to your “simple” math:
The world’s population is slightly over 6 billion today. By all acounts, there are about 2 billion Christians.
Of the 2 billion Christians, there are slightly over 1 billion Catholics (East and West)!
Of the remaining 900 million Christians, 600 million are Protestants and pseudo-Christians while between 250 and 300 million are Orthodox (Oriental and Eastern).
(N.B. There are about 1.2 billion Muslims [Sunni, Shi’ite, and other sects] and about 800 million Hindus, both more than the Orthodox of all nationalities!)
Just some hard facts, my friend!![]()
The problem is NONE of the above are examples of “Apostolic succession.” A “successor” is someone who immediately* replaces* someone else. The elders that were appointed in the various churches didn’t replace the Apostles, nor did Timothy replace Paul. Both Paul and Peter in the N.T. refer to their timely deaths, but neither talk of a successor. This is an unbiblical concept, totally foreign to the Scriptures.… no apostolic succession !!! …
what about …
Matt 28:19-20 ("… to the end of the age …")
1 Cor 12:28 (“apostles, prophets, teachers”)
Acts 1:15-26 (filling Judas’s position - he was gone, yet the office remained)
1 Tim 1:18 (Paul passes on authority to Timothy)
1 Cor 4:17 (instruction to respect Timothy - FULL authority)
2 Tim 1: 13-14 (asserting his teaching authority)
2 Tim 2: 2 (4 generations of apostolic succession in this line)
Titus 1:5-7 (appoint elders)
1 Tim 1:3; 4:11-13 (“command and teach these things”)
2 Tim 1:6 (laying on of hands … to ordain others)
1 Tim 4:14; 5:22 (“which was conferred on you … hands”, “lay hands”)
c’moooooooon …
michel
Actually, Acts 1:15-26 (mentioned above) is a direct mention of Apostolic Succession, just as 2 Tim 2:2 (mentioned above) fairly heavily implies.The problem is NONE of the above are examples of “Apostolic succession.” A “successor” is someone who immediately* replaces* someone else. The elders that were appointed in the various churches didn’t replace the Apostles, nor did Timothy replace Paul. Both Paul and Peter in the N.T. refer to their timely deaths, but neither talk of a successor. This is an unbiblical concept, totally foreign to the Scriptures.
The question is …how? Peter doesn’t discuss this further in the epistle, so how did he ensure the faithful would *always *have a reminder? He was on his way to his death and this was the last thing he wrote. Could it be that he would appoint someone to faithfully preach the Gospel as Peter received it? Could that be why the following could be said in 98 A.D., which was before the death of the Apostle John, BTW:12 For this reason I will not be negligent to remind you always of these things, though you know and are established in the present truth. 13 Yes, I think it is right, as long as I am in this tent, to stir you up by reminding you, 14 knowing that shortly I must put off my tent, just as our Lord Jesus Christ showed me. 15 Moreover** I will be careful to ensure that you always have a reminder of these things after my decease.**
Thus it is shown to be both Biblical and historical. The ball is in your court.“And thus preaching through countries and cities, they appointed the first-fruits [of their labours], having first proved them by the Spirit, to be bishops and deacons of those who should afterwards believe. Nor was this any new thing, since indeed many ages before it was written concerning bishops and deacons. For thus saith the Scripture a certain place, ‘I will appoint their bishops s in righteousness, and their deacons in faith.’… Our apostles also knew, through our Lord Jesus Christ, and there would be strife on account of the office of the episcopate. For this reason, therefore, inasmuch as they had obtained a perfect fore-knowledge of this, they appointed those [ministers] already mentioned, and afterwards gave instructions, that when these should fall asleep, other approved men should succeed them in their ministry…For our sin will not be small, if we eject from the episcopate those who have blamelessly and holily fulfilled its duties.” Pope Clement, Epistle to Corinthians, 42, 44 (A.D. 98).
Interesting. Couple of points:In classical Greek the word means a piece of rock, as in Homer, of Ajax throwing a stone at Hector (“Iliad,” vii, 270), or of Patroclus grasping and hiding in his hand a jagged stone (Iliad," xvi, 734).
In Scripture the Greek word petrodes is used in its plural form describing small stones or stony places in Matt. 13:5, 20 and Mark 4:5, 16. Some translations say “rocky” places, but the inference is not a large rock but “stony” soil.
In “…epi taute te petra” (upon this rock) the feminine form means rock, as distinguished from a stone or fragment of rock. In Homer (“Odyssey”) its the rock which Polyphemus places at the door of his cavern, a mass which twenty-two wagons could not remove; and the rock which he hurled at the retreating ships of Ulysses, creating by its fall a wave in the sea which drove the ships back to the land. You might say a small tsunami.
In Matt 16:18, in context, Jesus uses the word “petra” as an architect, a foundation on which He, the architect, will build His Church.
book 5, section 272 in the english translation reads:
Hmmph. Petros = boulder for Sophocles, and Petra = boulder for Josephus. Kinda’ shoots down the idea that the two words are exclusive and indicate entirely different things.accordingly the watchmen that sat upon the towers gave them notice when the engine was let go, and the stone came from it, and cried out aloud, in their own country language, THE STONE COMETH 1 so those that were in its way stood off, and threw themselves down upon the ground; by which means, and by their thus guarding themselves, the stone fell down and did them no harm. (greek translation)
If it can’t be shown in other uses within the same text or some other text from the same time period can you really put so much faith upon it as to make a doctrine. You say it was used as a proper name without losing its meaning as a common noun; how common can it be if you can’t find it anywhere? Rather you rely on a reference from a text written 800 years earlier. I’m not sure if you’re aware but languages undergo quite a change within that amount of time. I mean how well do you really understand Middle English?Linus, since you like the Greek so much I was hoping you’d be so kind so as to show me some verses where these two “rock” words are used.Originally Posted by JLove
Sorry, can’t be done. This is a unique instance and Jesus was employing a “play on words” to express His point. Jesus responds to Peter’s “emphatic,” with another equally “emphatic.” Peter says, "You are the Messiah, Son of the living God; Jesus replies, “You are Peter” (Petros), used here as a proper name but not losing its meaning as a common noun.
O mooder Mayde, O Mayde Mooder free!
O bussh unbrent, brennynge in Moyses sighte,
That ravyshedest doun fro the Deitee,
Thurgh tyne humblesse, the Goost that in th’alighte,
Of whos vertu, whan he tyne herte lighte,
Conceyved was the Fadres sapience,
Help me to telle it in thy reverence!
-The Canterbury Tales: The Prolouge to the Prioresses Tale
.The name itself was bestowed on Simon when he first encountered Jesus (Jn. 1:42), but under the form of is Aramaic equivalent, Cephas
This cannot be the case look at John 1:49 and John 11:27Peter is personally significant only in WHAT he confesses regarding WHO Jesus is, and the Divine means BY which it was revealed to him (the Father).
The words are extremely important and I don’t think anyone would deny that, but you can’t deny the importance of Peter himself.But it’s the meaning of his name, not Peter himself, that is significant…
The word for first there is prw/toj which can be either first in a chronological sense or first as in chief/primary. We know it must be the latter because Andrew came to Christ before Peter. (cf. John 1:40)The names of the twelve apostles are these: first, Simon, who is called Peter, and Andrew his brother; James the son of Zebedee, and John his brother; -Matt. 10:2
The account recorded in Acts actually shuts the door on the Roman Catholic idea of “Apostolic succession” i.e., applying this so-called “succession” to its Bishops. In Acts they were simply bringing the number of the Apostles back up to twelve, the number chosen by Christ Himself. And these were the requirements: (1) accompanied them all the time the Lord Jesus went in and out among them; (2) beginning with the baptism of John; (3) an eyewitness to the physical, bodily resurrection of Christ (Acts 1: 21-22).Actually, Acts 1:15-26 (mentioned above) is a direct mention of Apostolic Succession, just as 2 Tim 2:2 (mentioned above) fairly heavily implies.
You’re putting a meaning into the word which the context cannot bear. Matthew states nothing, nor implies, anything about rank, but simply a list of names. Peter is the first mentioned in the list. If we went with your logic, then Andrew would have a higher rank than John. I don’t think so!The words are extremely important and I don’t think anyone would deny that, but you can’t deny the importance of Peter himself.
The word for first there is prw/toj which can be either first in a chronological sense or first as in chief/primary. We know it must be the latter because Andrew came to Christ before Peter. (cf. John 1:40)
I agree, if you went just by Acts you could have a hard time going from 12 Apostles with the above requirements to the present state of hundreds of bishops who are 2000 years separated from the earthly life of Christ.And these were the requirements: (1) accompanied them all the time the Lord Jesus went in and out among them; (2) beginning with the baptism of John; (3) an eyewitness to the physical, bodily resurrection of Christ (Acts 1: 21-22).
…was to show that Christ Himself made more than 12, and the 13th Apostle never walked with Christ and never witnessed Christ’s resurection. So…the requirements you have mentioned aren’t biblical.St. Paul illustrated Jesus’ acceptance of there being more than 12 Apostles, and the ability of the Church (which is to Body of Christ - Col 1:24) to ordain more as required.
See St. Paul. The Apostle.… unless Rome’s second Bishop was a Jew who was directly taught by Jesus Christ and an eyewitness of His bodily resurrection, then he would not, nor could not, qualify as Peter’s successor, muchless as an “Apostle.”
You are right. I can’t find where Timothy was addressed as an Apostle. I can find an aweful lot about Bishops (especially in the epistles to Timothy), however, starting in again in Acts 1:Nor did Timothy qualify in any of the above requirements, either. Did Paul ever address him as an Apostle (see 1 Tim. 1:1-2; 2 Tim. 2:1-2)? The “spiritual gift within” him, bestowed on him through prophetic utterance and with the laying on of hands through Paul and the presbytery (board of elders), was just that, a “spiritual gift,” not an office (1 Tim. 4:14).
And here…20For it is written in the book of Psalms, Let his habitation be desolate, and let no man dwell therein: and his bishoprick let another take.
And then requirements are given by St. Paul that have nothing to do with being a physical witness to the Resurection. Additionally, by using the Greek word “episcopoi”, St. Paul’s readers would have known that this office has succession (again, see Acts 1 above).1This is a true saying, if a man desire the **office **of a bishop…
I don’t see a limit placed here WRT any time. It appears that this is to last for the life of the Church. My conclusion seems supported by the following:11 And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; 12 **For the perfecting of the saints, for **the work of the ministry, **for **the edifying of the body of Christ.
Finally, you haven’t replied at all WRT the 1st / 2nd Century Christian Church’s understanding of Apostolic Succession and the place of Bishops. I can give you more quotes, if you would like…28 And God has appointed these in the church: first apostles, second prophets, third teachers…
I’d say he stacks up pretty well, having been ordained a bishop by the laying on of hands, exactly as the Bible says, and exactly has happened since God first breathed on the Apostles in John 20:22 and charged them with the office of bishop.…how does your present Pope fair with the above requirements…
linus,You’re putting a meaning into the word which the context cannot bear. Matthew states nothing, nor implies, anything about rank, but simply a list of names. Peter is the first mentioned in the list. If we went with your logic, then Andrew would have a higher rank than John. I don’t think so!
Paul was chosen directly by Christ Himself, and He personally saw and was taught by the resurrected Lord. Which he claims as his credentials for his Apostleship (1 Cor. 9:1; Gal. 1:11-12). Can any of your Popes honestly claim any of these credentials?I agree, if you went just by Acts you could have a hard time going from 12 Apostles with the above requirements to the present state of hundreds of bishops who are 2000 years separated from the earthly life of Christ.
Thank God for St. Paul!
The requirements I mentioned are totally Biblical. Again, Paul was taught directly by Christ Himself (Gal. 1:11-12; 2 Cor. 12:1-4).The reason I stated the following…
…was to show that Christ Himself made more than 12, and the 13th Apostle never walked with Christ and never witnessed Christ’s resurection. So…the requirements you have mentioned aren’t biblical.
Your quote from Clement is vague. You put a lot of your own meaning into it. Did Clement call himself an Apostle? Nevertheless, it doesn’t matter how men view it, but that which is Divinely revealed. True Christianity is based on Divine Revelation, never on men’s imagination.Finally, you haven’t replied at all WRT the 1st / 2nd Century Christian Church understanding of Apostolic Succession and Bishops. I can give you more quotes, if you would like…
Oh, so he personally witnessed the resurrected Lord? He was personally chosen by Christ (Gal. 1:1)? Has he performed the signs and wonders and miracles of a true Apostle (2 Cor. 12:12)?I’d say he stacks up pretty well, having been ordained a bishop by the laying on of hands, exactly as the Bible says, and exactly has happened since God first breathed on the Apostles in John 20:22 and charged them with the office of bishop.