A new wrinkle on the Primacy of Peter

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Jesus said that a house divided against itself can not stand. Jesus established His church here on earth and gave authority to that church. Later on, He confimed that authority by not acting outside of it’s confindes. This is seen even in modern times when appariations happen because they always yeild to the church as the final authority.
 
Sir Knight:
Jesus said that a house divided against itself can not stand. Jesus established His church here on earth and gave authority to that church. Later on, He confimed that authority by not acting outside of it’s confindes. This is seen even in modern times when appariations happen because they always yeild to the church as the final authority.
We know from both Biblical (1 Cor. 1:12-13) and Church history that division occurs when men look to other men rather than Christ Himself as their final authority. The message of the Apostles was Christ Himself, no one else, never themselves. Roman Catholicism, Eastern Orthodoxy, and Protestantism, must all learn from history and simply get back to Christ and Him crucified (1 Cor. 12:12-14; 2 Cor. 11:1-3).
 
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linus:
We know from both Biblical (1 Cor. 1:12-13) and Church history that division occurs when men look to other men rather than Christ Himself as their final authority. The message of the Apostles was Christ Himself, no one else, never themselves. Roman Catholicism, Eastern Orthodoxy, and Protestantism, must all learn from history **and simply get back to Christ and Him crucified **(1 Cor. 12:12-14; 2 Cor. 11:1-3).
I assume you mean the same Christ Who said “… he who hears you, hears Me” and the same Christ Who said “… he who rejects you, rejects Me, and the One Who sent Me …”

Do you reject the only Church found by Christ… the leadership of which He was giving this power/authority/responsibility to?
 
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linus:
The requirement by Peter was to have witnessed the actual, bodily resurrection of Christ. This was the main requirement. Afterall, they were chosen to be His eyewitnesses to the world; eyewitnesses of His bodily resurrection. He had to have personally seen the resurrected Lord just after his actual death and burial.
There are two situations here.
  1. A Reconstitued Israel at the Pentecost. There had to be 12 Apostles representing the twelve tribes of the new Israel at the Pentecost. These Apostles must be witnesses.
  2. First the Jews, then to the Greeks. The church knew it had to grow, and there were not going to be enough witnesses to handle the growth. Hence, the need for Bishops.
NotWorthy
 
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MrS:
I assume you mean the same Christ Who said “… he who hears you, hears Me” and the same Christ Who said “… he who rejects you, rejects Me, and the One Who sent Me …”

Do you reject the only Church found by Christ… the leadership of which He was giving this power/authority/responsibility to?
The problem is, in context, Christ did not say this to the Church, but to 70 Jewish disciples whom He sent out into the cities of Israel during His earthly ministry. It occurred before the cross and before Pentecost. They didn’t go out with the message of the cross, the message of forgiveness of sins, salvation and eternal life through faith in Jesus Christ, but they healed the sick and cast out demons. The Church didn’t begin until after the cross, at Pentecost when the Spirit came in power and they were baptized, by the Spirit, into the body of Christ (1 Cor. 12:13).
 
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NotWorthy:
There are two situations here.
  1. A Reconstitued Israel at the Pentecost. There had to be 12 Apostles representing the twelve tribes of the new Israel at the Pentecost. These Apostles must be witnesses.
There’s no such thing as “*twelve tribes of the NEW Israel.” * This is an Amillennial concept, derived from the non-Biblical notion that the Church has replaced national Israel. Tell me, “NotWorthy,” to which “tribe” of the “new” Israel do you belong? What’s the source of this knowledge? Did you know that for at least the first 300 years the predominate, eschatological view of the Church was Premillennial, not Amillennial? They didn’t view themwselves as the “new” Israel.
  1. First the Jews, then to the Greeks. The church knew it had to grow, and there were not going to be enough witnesses to handle the growth. Hence, the need for Bishops.
The Greek word “episkopos,” translated by some as"bishops," and others “overseers,” are the same as “elders.” See Titus 1:5 (“elders” gr. presbuteros) and verse 7, “overseers” (gr. episkopos). Elders, or, overseers (bishops) were oppointed in every church. They weren’t Apostles, nor did they take the place of THE Apostles. The Apostle Paul himself instructed Titus:

TITUS 1:5 “For this reason I left you in Crete, that you might set in order what remains, and appoint elders in every city as I directed you,”

God Bless,
**L. **
 
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linus:
There’s no such thing as “*twelve tribes of the NEW Israel.” * This is an Amillennial concept, derived from the non-Biblical notion that the Church has replaced national Israel. Tell me, “NotWorthy,” to which “tribe” of the “new” Israel do you belong? What’s the source of this knowledge? Did you know that for at least the first 300 years the predominate, eschatological view of the Church was Premillennial, not Amillennial? They didn’t view themwselves as the “new” Israel.The Greek word “episkopos,” translated by some as"bishops," and others “overseers,” are the same as “elders.” See Titus 1:5 (“elders” gr. presbuteros) and verse 7, “overseers” (gr. episkopos). Elders, or, overseers (bishops) were oppointed in every church. They weren’t Apostles, nor did they take the place of THE Apostles. The Apostle Paul himself instructed Titus:

TITUS 1:5 “For this reason I left you in Crete, that you might set in order what remains, and appoint elders in every city as I directed you,”

God Bless,
**L. **
Jimmy Akins and a former Catholic Priest (elder) debate this in a new 2-CD set from CA. The “priest” gives these and many more arguments to justify the protestant position, and his leaving the priesthood. None will hold water upon closer examination. There IS a sacramental priesthood… and it is only found in the only Church Jesus founded… certainly before Pentacost (the birthday of the visible church). Afterall, the Church is 1] the visible Catholic Church 2] the body of believers 3] Jesus Christ Himself - Truth
 
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linus:
Did you know that for at least the first 300 years the predominate, eschatological view of the Church was Premillennial, not Amillennial?
I’m going to get back with you on this, once I figure out what Premillennial and amillennial is!😃

NotWorthy
 
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Fidelis:
Because they were meeting n Jerusalem and James was the bishop of Jerusalem. It is clear that Peter had the last word (Acts 15:12) and James merely laid down how the decision would be implemented.

These charges are all common Protestant and Orthodox false interpretations and have been answered ad nauseum in these forums.
With all due respect, it is not clear at all that Peter had the last word at the Council of Jerusalem. He certainly did not literally have the last word, and the plainer interpretation is that James took multiple testimonies into account for his final decision.

At the time of the Council of Jerusalem, had the Church in Rome been established? If not, why was not Peter the Bishop of Jerusalem if he had primacy over James?
 
petra,

In that council, two declarations were made:

One was infallible, and thus is still binding on the consciences of all the Christian faithful. Everyone at the council shut up when this was said, and the later declaration was made in light of the infallible pronouncement (read: “Therefore…”).

The other was a pastoral decision arrived at by the entire council, which St. Paul negates in later epistles (proving that this was not binding on the consciences of all the Christian faithful for all time, and therefore not infallible).

Wanna’ guess who said what? If you get this right, you’ll know who was in charge…

God Bless,
RyanL
 
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linus:
Elders, or, overseers (bishops) were oppointed in every church. They weren’t Apostles, nor did they take the place of THE Apostles. The Apostle Paul himself instructed Titus:

TITUS 1:5 “For this reason I left you in Crete, that you might set in order what remains, and appoint elders in every city as I directed you,”
Hi,

Apostles were not replaced “per se”; but they ordered men who shares part of their office :if not why did Apostles and elders met together at Jerusalem (acts 15) and why did Peter say that he is an elder as them (see 1Peter5/1) and why did Paul called Titus a coworker and associate ?
And these men ordered other men (as we see in Paul exhortation to Timothee). And we are told that these elders are finally chosen by the Holy Spirit to be overseers for the flock (see Act20/28).

All theses are amonf the many things that are the roots of “apostolic succession”.
 
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RyanL:
Wanna’ guess who said what?
Who needs to guess, Ryan? It’s all right there in the text for ALL to read. The question brought before the Council in Jerusalem, made up of Apostles, elders and other brethren, was whether or not the believing Gentiles coming into the Church need to be circumcised according to the Law of Moses,* i.e.,* become Jewish (Acts 15:5). It caused a lot of debate amongst them (vs. 7a) and AFTER a lot of talk Peter stood up and reminded them of when he was instructed by the Lord to present the gospel message of Christ to Cornelius’ relatives and friends (Acts 10-11), and upon simply believing the message of Christ the Holy Spirit fell upon them just as He did on the Jewish believers on the Day of Pentecost. In other words, no circumcision (not even baptism) was involved - simply belief: “But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way they also are” (Acts 15:11).

Now while still in their state of silence they listened to Paul and Barnabas relate to them the signs and wonders God had done through them among the Gentiles. All void of first receiving circumcision. James then gave the final word appealing to the Hebrew Prophets demonstrating that even in the future, Davidic Kingdom to come (after this Church age, the earthly, Millennial Kingdom of Christ) Gentile entrance into that Kingdom will not require circumcision either - only belief. In verse nineteen James (not Peter) declares: “Therefore it is MY judgment that we do not trouble those who are turning to God from among the Gentiles…” (Acts 15:19).

It was then a unanimous decision by the Apostles (plural) and elders, along with the whole church (others assembled in Jerusalem) to send a letter to Antioch with Paul, Barnabas, Barsabbas and Silas (Acts 15:22).

Bottom line, nowhere in the text is Peter ever depicted as “head of the Council,” as its principal voice, or “vicar of Christ.” In fact, James is one who says at the Council, “therefore, it is my judgment…” - although in the letter itself it is expressed that it was ALL their decision, including the Holy Spirit (Acts 15:28).

The passage demonstrates no primacy of Peter at this first Church Council.

God Bless,
L.
 
etcevénio:
Hi,

Apostles were not replaced “per se”; but they ordered men who shares part of their office :if not why did Apostles and elders met together at Jerusalem (acts 15) and why did Peter say that he is an elder as them (see 1Peter5/1) and why did Paul called Titus a coworker and associate ?
And these men ordered other men (as we see in Paul exhortation to Timothee). And we are told that these elders are finally chosen by the Holy Spirit to be overseers for the flock (see Act20/28).

All theses are amonf the many things that are the roots of “apostolic succession”.
Hi. None of what you state above speaks of “sharing” the Apostolic office. Titus and Timothy were co-workers, but never called co-Apostles. The work of an elder is very important in the Church.

I’m glad you brought up 1 Pet. 5:1. It’s very revealing in that Peter does not state any kind of primacy, but humbly indentifies himself as a “fellow-elder” only one who personally “witnessed the sufferings of Christ”, one of his Apostolic credentials.

He goes on to exhort the elders to shepherd their flocks, not under compulsion but voluntarily, not for their own gain, but with eagerness. Yet they are not to lord it over them (see 2 Cor. 1:24; cf 4:5).

There’s a whole different attitude demonstrated here by Peter than what eventually evolved in the Church after the Apostolic age, especially during the middle ages in the West.

There’s no “roots” of Apostolic “succession” here. Just “fellow-elders” encouraged to carry on the labor of exhorting and teaching the Body of Christ in their local areas.

God Bless,
L
 
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linus:
There’s no “roots” of Apostolic “succession” here. Just “fellow-elders” encouraged to carry on the labor of exhorting and teaching the Body of Christ in their local areas.
The role of apostolic succession in preserving true doctrine is illustrated in the Bible. To make sure that the apostles’ teachings would be passed down after the deaths of the apostles, Paul told Timothy, “[W]hat you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also” (2 Tim. 2:2). In this passage he refers to the first three generations of apostolic succession—his own generation, Timothy’s generation, and the generation Timothy will teach.

The Church Fathers, who were links in that chain of succession, regularly appealed to apostolic succession as a test for whether Catholics or heretics had correct doctrine. This was necessary because heretics simply put their own interpretations, even bizarre ones, on Scripture. Clearly, something other than Scripture had to be used as an ultimate test of doctrine in these cases.

Thus the early Church historian J. N. D. Kelly, a Protestant, writes, “[W]here in practice was [the] apostolic testimony or tradition to be found? . . . The most obvious answer was that the apostles had committed it orally to the Church, where it had been handed down from generation to generation. . . . Unlike the alleged secret tradition of the Gnostics, it was entirely public and open, having been entrusted by the apostles to their successors, and by these in turn to those who followed them, and was visible in the Church for all who cared to look for it” (Early Christian Doctrines, 37).

For the early Fathers, “the identity of the oral tradition with the original revelation is guaranteed by the unbroken succession of bishops in the great sees going back lineally to the apostles. . . . [A]n additional safeguard is supplied by the Holy Spirit, for the message committed was to the Church, and the Church is the home of the Spirit. Indeed, the Church’s bishops are . . . Spirit-endowed men who have been vouchsafed ‘an infallible charism of truth’” (ibid.).

Thus on the basis of experience the Fathers could be “profoundly convinced of the futility of arguing with heretics merely on the basis of Scripture. The skill and success with which they twisted its plain meaning made it impossible to reach any decisive conclusion in that field” (ibid., 41).

Catholic Answers
 
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linus:
I’m glad you brought up 1 Pet. 5:1. It’s very revealing in that Peter does not state any kind of primacy, but humbly indentifies himself as a “fellow-elder” only one who personally “witnessed the sufferings of Christ”, one of his Apostolic credentials.
But… (there is always a “but” 😉 )
Today’s pope and his predecessors would say, “I bishop of Rome, as fellow-bishop…”
The first dignity of the ope just after his name of christian, is to be “bishop of Rome”.
But coming back to Peter, this simply shows that a part of his office is identified to (or is) the office of the elders. Hence, as we see Apostles ordering elders, and then elders orders others elders, this “something” is transmitted from generation to generation via presbyteral ordination. What we call apostolic succession . That is the link taht rely us (with the faith, the Bible, sacraments, etc…) to the Church instituted by the Lord.

Morever I do think Peter here as a kind of primacy to the elders he writes to, since he exhorts them .

God best.
 
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linus:
"Therefore it is MY judgment
My friend linus,

I believe you have emphasized the wrong word. Would you please define the word ‘therefore’, and then tell us what it is ‘there for’?

God Bless,
RyanL
 
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RyanL:
My friend linus,

I believe you have emphasized the wrong word. Would you please define the word ‘therefore’, and then tell us what it is ‘there for’?

God Bless,
RyanL
Sure, “therefore” is used to introduce a logical conclusion from facts or reasons. James makes his conclusion to not trouble the Gentiles with circumcision based on Peter’s testimony, that of Paul and Silas, and even the written example of the ancient Prophet Amos. James’ conclusion seemed good to the Apostles and elders, with the others present at Jerusalem (notice the distinction: Apostles AND elders), so they sent a letter to Antioch to confirm their decision in writting.

Seems extremely clear to me.
 
Seems extremely clear to me, too:

14 Simon has declared…19 Therefore…

there·fore ( P ) Pronunciation Key (thârhttp://cache.lexico.com/dictionary/graphics/AHD4/GIF/prime.giffôrhttp://cache.lexico.com/dictionary/graphics/AHD4/GIF/lprime.gif, -fhttp://cache.lexico.com/dictionary/graphics/AHD4/GIF/omacr.gifrhttp://cache.lexico.com/dictionary/graphics/AHD4/GIF/lprime.gif)
adv. For that reason or cause; consequently or hence.
Code:
 [source](http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=therefore)

What Simon declared was the primary data point, which is why it is the first thing mentioned (and the reason why everyone quit arguing in v. 12). Because of what Simon infallibly declared, a pastoral decision was then reached. This is in much the same way as happens now (BTW, sometimes there is quite a bit of disagreement about the pastoral decision, but never about the infallible declaration). The Pope makes a declaration (now, typically by encyclical), and then the Bishops discuss how to implement pastoral measures to assist in the declaration coming to fruition. Those pastoral measures can change (as St. Paul changed these in later epistles), but the infallible declaration cannot.
Seems clear to me…unless you don’t acknowledge what the “therefore” is there for…

God Bless,
RyanL
 
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etcevenio:
But coming back to Peter, this simply shows that a part of his office is identified to (or is) the office of the elders. Hence, as we see Apostles ordering elders, and then elders orders others elders, this “something” is transmitted from generation to generation via presbyteral ordination. What we call apostolic succession.
All the Apostles were considered “elders,” but not all elders were Apostles. This is made very clear in Scripture.

There was a unique authority given to the Apostles by the Lord for “building up” the Church as Paul points out in his letter to the Corinthians:

2COR. 10:8 “For even if I should boast somewhat further about our authority, which the Lord gave for building you up and not for destroying you, I shall not be put to shame…

2COR. 13:10 “For this reason I am writing these things while absent, in order that when present I may not use severity, in accordance with the authority which the Lord gave me, for building up and not for tearing down.

This was a Divine authority, unique to the Apostles, that “elders” in the local churches did not possess, nor is there any Scriptural evidence that this unique, Apostolic authority was ever handed over (or down, through the centuries) to others after their deaths. Apostolic knowledge, of course, but not their authority.

EPH. 2:20 “…having been built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets,
Christ Jesus Himself being the corner stone…,

Morever I do think Peter here as a kind of primacy to the elders he writes to, since he exhorts them.
Of course there’s a “primacy” attributed to Peter - he’s an Apostle, they’re elders. As shown by the above quotes from Paul’s letter to the Corinthians, their job was to exhort and build up the believers. But there’s nothing at all in Peter’s writings to suggest by what he wrote to those whom he addressed in his letter, especially concerning himself, that he was given by Christ any kind of primacy in respect to the other Apostles.

Peter’s said “primacy,” which was subsequently extended to the Bishop(s) of Rome (popularly called the “chair of Peter”), is not a doctrine based on an exegetical study of the N. T. Scriptures. But a doctrine developed after the Apostolic age, rooted in the assertions of men. Pope Siricius (385-398) was the first to claim Universal Jurisdiction of the Church. Pope Innocent I (402-417) proclaimed himself “Ruler of the Church of God” and then claimed he had the right to settle the more important matters of controversy in the whole Church. It was Pope Leo I (440-461) that claimed himself “Primate of all Bishops” by divine appointment. He proclaimed himself Lord of the whole Church, advocated Exclusive Universal Papacy and said that resistance to his authority was a sure way to Hell. But in his day the Ecumenical Council of Chalcedon (451) gave the Patriarch of Constantinople equal prerogatives with the Bishop of Rome. Then it was the Patriarch of Constantinople who called himself “Universal Bishop,” and Pope Gregory I (590-604) in the West called the title vicious and haughty and refused to even apply it to himself. It was Nicholas I (858-867) who first donned a crown. Finally it was Pope Innocent III (1198-1216) who claimed to be “Vicar of Christ,” “Vicar of God,” and “Supreme Sovereign of the Church and the World.” He announced that “All things on earth and in heaven and in hell are subject to the Vicar of Christ.” This, of course, culminated in the famous Papal bull by Boniface the VIII (1294-1303): *“We declare, affirm, define, and pronounce that it is altogether necessary for Salvation that every creature be subject to the Roman Pontiff.” *

Now when you go back and compare the humble attitudes expressed in the writings of Peter and Paul concerning themselves (who actually DID have the authority), one has to be shocked :eek: with what eventually developed down through the centuries fueled by the pride of men and their lust for power. The Apostle Paul warned of such developments in Scripture by the basic spiritual principle found in Gal. 5:9:* “A little leaven leavens the whole lump of dough.”*
 
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Mickey:
The role of apostolic succession in preserving true doctrine is illustrated in the Bible. To make sure that the apostles’ teachings would be passed down after the deaths of the apostles, Paul told Timothy, “[W]hat you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also” (2 Tim. 2:2). In this passage he refers to the first three generations of apostolic succession—his own generation, Timothy’s generation, and the generation Timothy will teach.
You’re not demonstrating “Apostolic Succession” by your example above. You’re demonstrating orally passing on Apostolic “teaching.” That’s something we all do even to this very day when we share the gospel message of salvation through faith in Jesus Christ to unbelievers, and exhort other brethren by expository teachings of the Scriptures. But we have no record of what Timothy taught to those in his care, do we? We can only assume he did not deviate from what he himself was taught by Paul.

Nothing can be preserved orally, it must be put in writing to be accurately preserved for the following generations (in your example Paul, Timothy, and those under Timothy’s care were all contemporaries). Sure, today we have audio tapes and videos, but these are all VERY recent technology. Even you must appeal to the WRITINGS of the ECFs. You don’t have an audio tape or CD by them in your possession, do you?

But as I pointed out in a previous post, those WRITINGS are not Divinely inspired WRITINGS (i.e., Scripture), but expressed, written opinions by those men, hence, subject to the culture and errors of their day. Therefore, even they must be tested by the only writings we have that were Divinely inspired (theopneustos - "God breathed), handed down to us as a permanent (hard copy) record of Divine truth regarding the faith “once for all delivered to the saints.”
Thus on the basis of experience the Fathers could be "profoundly convinced of the futility of arguing with heretics merely on the basis of Scripture.
Hummm, yet Christ Himself fought back the temptations of Satan by this “futile” method.
The skill and success with which they twisted its plain meaning made it impossible to reach any decisive conclusion in that field"
Men will ALWAYS twist the clear teachings of Scripture. Neither you or I can control that. Men even twist the meaning of the WRITINGS of the ECFs to conform to their doctrines. Even the conclusions of the Ecumenical Councils. I’ve heard endless debates on these. Just as Paul states:

1COR 1:18 “For the word of the cross is to those who are perishing foolishness,
but to us who are being saved it is the power of God.”

2COR 4:3 “And even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled to those who are
perishing,”

It is impossible for you or me to appeal to any oral teachings of Timothy, or Paul, or Christ. But we can, and MUST appeal to what we have preserved for us in Divinely Inspired, Holy WRITINGS. Just as Christ and the Apostles did in their day and rejected the “traditions” that did not conform to what was already written. In fact, it’s how they tested the traditions of their day.

God Bless,
L.
 
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