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CampionTheChampion
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A feel ashamed for not being about to explain this one to her. Here’s there passage.
But now I’m confused. It seems like this Protestant is just attacking the coherence of this passage in general. It clearly states a brother (supposedly Christian) can commit a sin a few verses before John supposedly says it is impossible for a Christian to ever sin.
Let me know any insight you guys have.
Joe.
This is the famous proof text for the mortal and venial sin distinction. My Protestant friend quickly pointed me to the bold part and claimed that it shows that a person truly born of God would never sin. If one is truly a Christian, then God will preserve him to the end or “keep” him (eternal security).16 If anyone sees his brother committing a sin not leading to death, he shall ask and God will for him give life to those who commit sin not leading to death. There is a sin leading to death; I do not say that he should make request for this. 17 All unrighteousness is sin, and there is a sin not leading to death.
18 We know that no one who is born of God sins; but He who was born of God keeps him, and the evil one does not touch him. (1 John 5:16-18 NSAB, bold added)
But now I’m confused. It seems like this Protestant is just attacking the coherence of this passage in general. It clearly states a brother (supposedly Christian) can commit a sin a few verses before John supposedly says it is impossible for a Christian to ever sin.
Let me know any insight you guys have.
Joe.
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