As a Protestant, I don’t believe in the Catholic teachings you mentioned simply because the version of The Bible (KJV) that I read is different from the versions of The Bible that have been accepted by the Catholic Church.
Rd, the same 27 books of the NT are used in all bibles. Which NT teachings do you not believe, and what does this have to do with one person using the KJV and one person using the New Jerusalem bible, when both versions contain the same 27 books?
Martin Luther Luther had a low view of the books of Hebrews, James, Jude, and Revelation. He called the Epistle of James “an epistle of straw,” finding little in it that pointed to Christ and His saving work. He also had harsh words for the book of Revelation, saying that he could “in no way detect that the Holy Spirit produced it.” He had reason to question the apostolicity of Hebrews, James, Jude, and Revelation because the early church categorized these books as antilegomena, meaning that they were not accepted without reservation as canonical, at least until the CC settled the mater. If ML was wrong about these 4 NT books, and he was according to all Protestants, then logically speaking, he could have been wrong about the 7 books the CC supposedly added - is that a fair assessment?
You might be surprised to learn that ML also translated the so called Apocrypha as well. The editors of Luther’s Work explain, “In keeping with early Christian tradition, Luther also included the Apocrypha of the Old Testament. Sorting them out of the canonical books, he appended them at the end of the Old Testament with the caption, ‘These books are not held equal to the Scriptures, but are useful and good to read.’” If, as ML suggested, these books are useful and good to read, then why don’t Protestants read them? I guess my point is, if ML included these 7 books in his German bible, why doesn’t the KJV include these 7 books, with the same caption?
