I quess you didn’t read Mark 16:16 that I quoted which says, “Anyone who believes and is baptized will be saved.” Also I quoted Acts 2:38-39 that says "Each of you must turn from your sins and turn to God, and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ…?
This is not a statement of chronology.
Yes the choice was made by the parents but the infant had no choice in the matter. It also says the a infant was presented to God not baptized. Jesus was presented when he was a infant not baptized unless you consider circumcision baptism then why did Jesus get baptized by John?
Jesus was presented as an infant in a rite of dedication. Baptism is not a rite of dedication. Baptism replaces circumcision (Col. 2), and has the same qualities as circumcision (entrance into covenant with God). It doesn’t replace John’s baptism. John’s baptism was not a Christian baptism. It was an old covenant purification ritual that existed hundreds of years before John came on the scene, and passed away with the close of the old covenant era. If John’s baptism was the same as Christian baptism, then John’s disciples would not have needed to be rebaptized. Yet they were.
Again give me another infant. All you can point is to one. Give me another name of a infant that had/have faith and know they have faith and what it means.
Why would anyone have to give you the name of another infant? Is there a certain numerical point in Scripture that has to be reached in order to establish a reality? If John could have faith as an infant, then ANY infant can have faith.
Where do you get the idea that faith is an intellectual quality? It’s a supernatural gift. Therefore, it doesn’t follow that it is limited by natural reason or intellectual capability. Scripture says that faith MUST be present for union with Christ. There is no salvation without faith. Unless you believe everyone with an intellectual restriction is damned, then both infants and the mentally disabled are capable of faith because it is a gift which God bestows.