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mark_a
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Maybe so.You presume falsely about what you think I’m presuming. Not helpful for discussion.
Maybe so.You presume falsely about what you think I’m presuming. Not helpful for discussion.
John MacArthur is definitely a Baptist, more works oriented than most but a Baptist nonetheless. He also has an ego bigger than the state of Texas. It takes a lot of ego to put your name on a bible. Check out the MacArthur Study Bible. Just check it out, don’t read it, don’t study it, don’t rely on it.I am pretty sure that John MacArthur would not self identify as a Baptist.
An evangelical.
A dispensationalist.
Part of the Grace movement but not a Baptist.
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Sure it’s relevant. It shows the promise is for the future as when children are the age of understanding repentance.
Interesting how you interrupted the phrase “and children who are afar off…” When I read that,
I immediately take it to mean future generations of children not born yet…especially since they already mentioned their children. People who are born with mental handicaps might not be able to repent…does that exclude them from baptism?..
This is a good link for you to see the issue from a different perspective:
catholic.com/library/Infant_Baptism.asp
Great verses, thank you.
Could you explain why you’re sharing them, please?
And I have a family too and can you tell me all their genders? What languages do they all speak? Circular argument.I have a family. Could you tell me if I have any infants right now? My sister has a family. Presently, are there any infants in it?
My wife has 3 siblings with families. How many presently have infants?
Well said.And I have a family too and can you tell me all their genders? What languages do they all speak? Circular argument.
The above statement does not rebuke infant baptisms in any shape or form. As I said it before, not one opponent of infant baptism has been capable of showing me where the Jews EXCLUDED or did not consider infants or young children as part of the household.
BTW:
During the time when children were raised in the first Christian homes, we never—not even once—find an example of a child raised in a Christian home who is baptized only upon making a “decision for Christ.” Rather, it is always assumed that the children of Christian homes are already Christians, that they have already been “baptized into Christ” (Rom. 6:3). If infant baptism were not the rule, then we should have references to the children of Christian parents joining the Church only after they had come to the age of reason, and there are no such records in the Bible.
Well, I caught on immediately I read your post, and thought:Oh how I was hoping you’d ask (though, I’d thought for sure you’d know…perhaps you are inquiring for your own confirmation?)
It is the faith of those who brought the man, NOT the paralytic man, but, the faith of his friends that moves Jesus to heal the man. In all three of these gospels, we see, ‘because He saw their faith…’. In the same way, a parent or legal guardian’s faith is sufficient to confer baptism on their child or anybody else’s.
The friends.Not the man in question, his friends.
If that is true of no blood relation, how much more does this hold for parents and child?
It is the faith of those who brought the man, NOT the paralytic man, but, the faith of his friends that moves Jesus to heal the man. In all three of these gospels, we see, ‘because He saw their faith…’. In the same way, a parent or legal guardian’s faith is sufficient to confer baptism on their child or anybody else’s.
The friends.Not the man in question, his friends.
If that is true of no blood relation, how much more does this hold for parents and child?
And I have a family too and can you tell me all their genders? What languages do they all speak? Circular argument.
The above statement does not rebuke infant baptisms in any shape or form. As I said it before, not one opponent of infant baptism has been capable of showing me where the Jews EXCLUDED or did not consider infants or young children as part of the household.
BTW:
During the time when children were raised in the first Christian homes, we never—not even once—find an example of a child raised in a Christian home who is baptized only upon making a “decision for Christ.” Rather, it is always assumed that the children of Christian homes are already Christians, that they have already been “baptized into Christ” (Rom. 6:3). If infant baptism were not the rule, then we should have references to the children of Christian parents joining the Church only after they had come to the age of reason, and there are no such records in the Bible.
Suggest you read the Martyrdom of Polycarph. Chapter 9:3, Polycarph states he has served the Lord for 86 years. We know he lived 69-155 A.D. That is 86 years. He was a disciple of St. John the Apostle. Possible, though I have not found it, he was baptised by St. John.Those you speak of wrote the NT. There is NO evidence infant baptism was practiced during the first century.
You’ll probably tell me of the 5 families that were baptized. You’d have to prove there were infants in those families. Not all families have infants at all times. Of the thousands of NT baptisms, only 5 families are mentioned; IMO, not good odds.
Sorry you misunderstood my point. I do NOT think the verse says ,‘and children who are afar off’.[SIGN]Dokimas;7031617]Sure it’s relevant. It shows the promise is for the future as when children are the age of understanding repentance.[/SIGN]
Interesting how you interrupted the phrase “and children who are afar off…” When I read that,
I immediately take it to mean future generations of children not born yet…especially since they already mentioned their children. People who are born with mental handicaps might not be able to repent…does that exclude them from baptism?..
This is a good link for you to see the issue from a different perspective:
catholic.com/library/Infant_Baptism.asp
There’s a difference between believing for healing and baptism.Oh how I was hoping you’d ask (though, I’d thought for sure you’d know…perhaps you are inquiring for your own confirmation?)
It is the faith of those who brought the man, NOT the paralytic man, but, the faith of his friends that moves Jesus to heal the man. In all three of these gospels, we see, ‘because He saw their faith…’. In the same way, a parent or legal guardian’s faith is sufficient to confer baptism on their child or anybody else’s.
The friends.Not the man in question, his friends.
If that is true of no blood relation, how much more does this hold for parents and child?
You make my point. Thank you, my friend. I don’t know if you have children or their ages if you do. That’s my point. You can’t know for sure that those 5 families had infants, therefore you can’t use those verses to say infants got baptized in the NT.And I have a family too and can you tell me all their genders? What languages do they all speak? Circular argument.
The above statement does not rebuke infant baptisms in any shape or form. As I said it before, not one opponent of infant baptism has been capable of showing me where the Jews EXCLUDED or did not consider infants or young children as part of the household.
BTW:
During the time when children were raised in the first Christian homes, we never—not even once—find an example of a child raised in a Christian home who is baptized only upon making a “decision for Christ.” Rather, it is always assumed that the children of Christian homes are already Christians, that they have already been “baptized into Christ” (Rom. 6:3). If infant baptism were not the rule, then we should have references to the children of Christian parents joining the Church only after they had come to the age of reason, and there are no such records in the Bible.
Assume as you will.BTW:
During the time when children were raised in the first Christian homes, we never—not even once—find an example of a child raised in a Christian home who is baptized only upon making a “decision for Christ.” Rather, it is always assumed that the children of Christian homes are already Christians, that they have already been “baptized into Christ” (Rom. 6:3). If infant baptism were not the rule, then we should have references to the children of Christian parents joining the Church only after they had come to the age of reason, and there are no such records in the Bible.
As you assume the didn’t have any younger children. This points perfectly to the reason sola scriptura is insufficient and why that question must be settled first.Assume as you will.
No because the Eastern Catholic and Orthodox Churches confirm infants right after baptism.I feel the symbolic aspect of infant baptism is good and powerful for the CC,
that the parents accept their responsibility to raise the child in the faith.
Obviously, a baby isn’t capable of repenting so the purpose is different than for Protestants.
Wouldn’t Confirmation be a more appropriate comparison with Protestant baptism?
So it’s okay to assume as long as you don’t believe in SS.As you assume the didn’t have any younger children. This points perfectly to the reason sola scriptura is insufficient and why that question must be settled first.