About Jesus and his mother

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Why is it that some passages in the bible talk about Jesus having brothers and sisters (Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us?" (Matthew 13.54-56)), yet the Catholic Church says he did not? I have read arguments that the Jewish family structure did not have an official name for siblings, but that sounds strange to me. Why wouldn’t they, when having siblings in a family would be considered basic in any culture?
 
Why is it that some passages in the bible talk about Jesus having brothers and sisters (Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us?" (Matthew 13.54-56)), yet the Catholic Church says he did not? I have read arguments that the Jewish family structure did not have an official name for siblings, but that sounds strange to me. Why wouldn’t they, when having siblings in a family would be considered basic in any culture?
The bible clearly says he has siblings. I don’t know why the church would dispute this. Looks like Mary wasn’t a virgin after all.
 
The official position of the Church is that “brother” and “sister” can also be used for other family relations (for example, Abraham was Lot’s uncle, but he calls Lot his brother). There are apologists who point to other people with the same name and claim that these are obviously not children of Mary (though not all the named brothers have been pointed to). They will also mention when Jesus was left behind in Jerusalem that there was no mention of brothers or sisters when Joseph and Mary went back to look for Him. They will also point out that there is no place in Scripture that specifically says Mary had other children, or that Joseph and Mary had normal marital relations. There has also been the suggestion that these are children of Joseph from a previous marriage. Seems to me that the “infallible” magisterium of the Church is content to let her “children” figure it out for themselves, just as long as they DON’T think that these were actual siblings of Jesus (how does this show the love of God toward His people?).

I do not believe these apologists (or the “official” Church teaching). I would point out that the New Testament was written in Greek, not Hebrew, and there are certainly words to distinguish “brother” from “cousin”. Since the Scriptures were authored by God, and we are not given a clear indication that the brothers and sisters of Jesus mentioned in Matt 13:54-56 are of some other relation (as we have in the case of Abraham and Lot), I believe that brother means a sibling brother.

I beleive that the language used indicates clearly that Joseph and Mary did have normal marital relations, but not until after the birth of Jesus (her virginity was only necessary up until His birth). When you try and trace the teaching of her perpetual virginity you find yourself reading things like the Protevangelium of James (which indicates that Jesus “beamed out” of Mary rather than being born in the usual way). The Church teaches that Mary maintained her virginal integrity before, DURING and after the birth of Jesus! That goes back directly to this work. I’ve never had a baby (being a man, that’s a good thing), but I do not believe that anyone can maintain their virginal integrity when giving birth (short of doing some surgery). This is also the origin of the idea that Joseph had other children from a previous marriage.

As far as the idea of them being children of Joseph from a previous marriage, the problem with that is the Throne of David goes to the firstborn, which would have been James, not Jesus, if these were children from a previous marriage. Granted, not all Kings were the firstborn, but if Joseph had other children prior to Jesus, His claim to the throne would be in question (certainly, Satan would contest it).

One last arguement I have heard of is that Matthew was originally written in Aramaic (very similar to Hebrew), and like Hebrew does not distinguish between brothers and cousins, and even if this wasn’t the case, the use of the word “brother” is a Hebraism. The idea is that Matthew was written primarily for Jewish converts, and so spoke in a way that they would understand. I don’t think this holds up because the parallel passage in Mark (6:3) also reads “brothers” and “sisters”, and I have heard no arguement about Mark being written in Aramaic or for Jewish converts.
 
I would suggest reading this article:
catholicsource.net/articles/perpetualvirginity.htm

It’s very helpful in explaining Jesus “brothers and sisters” using the bible itself 🙂
That’s a great link, Kristan! All who have doubts should check it out.

If we call ourselves Catholic then we have to BE Catholic.

We cannot understand all scripture by ourselves. We must accept the almost 2000 years of Church teaching about the bible (since She wrote / assembled it). To understand matters of faith we need both Tradition and Scripture.

It is like that in almost all areas of life. We have some understanding of, say, medicine but we still accept the doctor’s opinion – he has studied the subject in for more than we will ever have the time to.
Some of us know the bible in and out but only the Church teaches with authority. And not all truth is contained in the bible. Jesus established His Church to contain all truth.
 
In the language, the word “brother” was also used to describe any male relative (like a cousin)

we know Mary is a Virgin and all the early Church Fathers agree with this… it’s what the Church has always taught
 
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kristanl:
I would suggest reading this article:
catholicsource.net/articl…lvirginity.htm

It’s very helpful in explaining Jesus “brothers and sisters” using the bible itself
Wow! Now I understand! Why didn’t anyone ever explain it to me like this before! (This is how I reacted when I finally understood my Geico policy). In regard to the information on this link, I note a few problems. Since John 7:2-10 makes it clear that “neither did his brethren believe in him”, I would suggest that any connection between His brothers and His disciples (in the Gospels) is not a valid argument. Therefore, James the brother of the Lord is not the same as James the son of Zebedee or James the Less (son of Alpheaus). And, yes, it is possible for more than 1 or 2 people to have the same name (I had so many friends in college named “Mike” that we distinguished them by major – computer Mike, business Mike, biology Mike, etc…). So that removes James, Jude and Simon from the argument presented. This also disqualifies Joseph from the argument given because he is the brother of James (son of Alpheaus). Salome is presented as a possible “sister”, but again, should be disqualified because of her connection with James the Less. Furthermore, Matt 13 and Mark 6 both indicate that there were at least 2 sisters, and this attempt only explains one sister.

As has been my experience with a lot of Roman Catholic presentations, they sound really good, but when you examine them closely, they’re not as great as some people think.
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FCEGM:
The Perpetual Virginity of Mary and Divine Faith – nice preaching of Catholic doctrine. Where are the Scripture references? It seems to me that the only difference between the Catholic and Protestant is that the Church tells the Catholic what “brother” and “sister” CAN’T mean. If the Church has an infallible teaching authority, then why doesn’t it state clearly and definitively the relationship between Jesus and His “brothers” and “sisters”?

Oh Brother, Where Art Thou? – rather than give a detailed explanation of everything in the article, I will point out that any James who was a disciple of Jesus could not be a sibling brother. The problem here seems to be that someone thinks that James the Less and James the Lord’s brother are the same person. Where is the evidence for this?

The “Four Mary’s” in the Gospels – this is a bit more involved. For example, Mr. Bonocore states –
Matthew 27: 55 – The Crucifixion
“Among them were Mary Magdalene and MARY THE MOTHER OF JAMES AND JOSEPH, and the mother of the sons of Zebedee.”
This “Mary” is obviously the mother of the same James and Joseph mentioned in Matt 13:55.
How is this “Mary” “obviously the mother of the same James and Joseph mentioned in Matt 13:55”? On what evidence is this statement based? He also says –
Both in Matthew’s account, and more clearly here in Mark’s, this phrase seems to suggest that these particular “brothers” of Jesus lived elsewhere. (Could they have been traveling with Jesus as His followers?)
What indicates that they lived elsewhere? And to suggest that they were traveling with Jesus as followers seems to ignore the fact that His brothers (in the Gospels) were unbelievers (remember John 7:2-10). I’ll stop my review of this article here. As I have pointed out, Mr. Bonocore has made 2 assertions, but has provided no evidence to support them (not to mention these arguments have been addressed in part at the beginning of this post).

The Catholic Legate – Lot of things here that are not related to the topic, so I won’t bother with it. I am curious, though. Do these articles reflect the “official” teaching of the Roman Catholic Church, or are they simply his interpretation of the “official” teachings of the Roman Catholic Church? In other words, has the Roman Catholic Church “officially” declared that the James and Joseph of Matt 27:55 is the same James and Joseph mentioned in Matt 13:55? If not, then wouldn’t that mean Mr. Bonocore is practising Protestantism?
 
The bible clearly says he has siblings. I don’t know why the church would dispute this. Looks like Mary wasn’t a virgin after all.
**i’m so glad that brilliant scholars & intellects like yourself can speak authoritatively on the Virginity of the Mother of our Lord & Savior Jesus Christ!

i guess i could speak just as authoritatively on your assumptions (remember…they all stink!!!)

i wish i was so incredibly ignorant!!!

“prettylarge” surely refers to your opinion of yourself, your ego & your arrogance! It can never refer to your intelligence or your honesty!!!
**
Sancta Maria, Mater Dei, Ora Pro Nobis Peccatoribus!

mark
 
The Catholic Church teaches that the Virgin Mary gave birth to only one child, Jesus Christ. Who the brothers and sisters of Jesus mentioned in the Bible are is something of a mystery. They could be step-brothers and step-sisters, children of Joseph by a previous marriage; a very early witness of this notion is the Protoevangelium of James, written about A.D. 120. They could be adopted brothers and adopted sisters, children adopted by Joseph and Mary; caring for orphans would not be out of character for either Joseph or Mary. In addition, the Bible sometimes uses the words “brother” and “sister” to indicated relations other than immediate family members. So, they could be more distantly related to Jesus, such as nieces and nephews, aunts and uncles, or cousins. They could also be very distantly related to Jesus, such as members of the same city, tribe, or country. St. Stephen and St. Paul addressed the men of Jerusalem as “brothers and fathers.” (Acts 7:2; 22:1)
 
The official position of the Church is that “brother” and “sister” can also be used for other family relations (for example, Abraham was Lot’s uncle, but he calls Lot his brother).
The Church has this official position due to the fact that Aramaic has no word for ‘cousin’. There are Syro-Malabar and Chaldean Catholic CAF members who speak Aramaic and can confirm this for you, if need be. So, did the bible lie when it called Abram and Lot ‘brothers’? No! As you say, they were uncle and nephew. The ancient Hebrew language simply did not have ‘cousin’ in it. James and Joses are also seen as children of a different Mary in Matthew 27:55-56.** Mark 6:3** mentions “James, Joses, Judas and Simon” as Jesus’ ‘brothers’. Since we know from Matthew that James and Joses are not Christ’s brothers, could Judas and Simon be? No! Judas and Simon were Apostles, with Judas being either Judas Iscariot, or maybe Jude Thaddeus, neither of which is a sibling of Christ. Simon was either Simon Peter (not a sibling), or Simon the Zealot (not a sibling, as he was associated with Nathanael of Cana). A glossing over of scripture, or taking it out of context leads to such confusion.

Mary’s womb was holy, having been used to conceive Christ by the Holy Spirit. Mary, already married to Joseph, but not yet living with him, was shocked to hear from Gabriel that she would bear a son. Now think: Why? Because she not only was a virgin, but was destined to remain one. A married woman is not shocked to hear she will bear a son unless she did not intend to have offspring.

Know also that in many areas of the world today, those from your city or town, or even the same country are known as your "brothers’ and ‘sisters’, though they are not even blood relatives. True in Nigeria and much of Africa, as well as in the middle east to this day.

I will entertain any other scripture-based explanation, but there isn’t one.
 
This is a very good question. I came across this question in the course of reading some books in years past.
Based on my study so far of the scriptures, the first born is always presented to the temple in the Hebrew tradition. And this is the case of Jesus.
In St. John’s Gospel we learned that the Blessed Virgin Mary’s sister is Mary of Clopas. In Matthew’s Gospel she was referred to as “the other Mary”. In St. Mark’s and Matthew’s Gospels, we learned that Mary of Clopas (not the Virgin Mary), is the mother of James and Joseph. At the crucifixion, both St. Mark and St. Matthew identified James and Joseph as the sons of Mary of Clopas, therefore Jesus cousins.
Also at the crucifixion in St. John’s Gospel, Jesus entrusted the Blessed Virgin Mary to St. John. If the Hebrew tradition will be followed, it dictates that the entrusting of the Blessed Mother should have been made to a blood relative. As we all know that St. John is an apostle and not a blood relative.
Another example in Mark’s Gospel, Jesus is referred to as “the” son of Mary, not “a” son of Mary. St. Paul also uses “brethren” and “kinsmen” interchangeably (Rom 9:3). There are other Biblical passages that will answer this question, “Does Jesus really has brothers and sisters born by the Blessed Virgin Mary?”
 
. . . nice preaching of Catholic doctrine. Where are the Scripture references? It seems to me that the only difference between the Catholic and Protestant is that the Church tells the Catholic what “brother” and “sister” CAN’T mean. If the Church has an infallible teaching authority, then why doesn’t it state clearly and definitively the relationship between Jesus and His “brothers” and “sisters”?
This is an unreasonable demand for several reasons, chief of which is because we do not know with complete certainty how some of the so-called “brothers” or “sisters” of Jesus were actually related to Him. The only one for which we have a clear historically documented relationship is the brother called “Simon.” According to St. Hegessipus, an early Jewish Christian writer and a member of the original Jerusalem city-church (where this same St. Simon was the bishop in Hegessipus’ childhood), the “brother” Simon was the son of Clopas, who was the literal brother (sibling) of St. Joseph, Jesus’ foster father. So, the “brother” Simon was actually Jesus’ first-cousin through His foster father Joseph. How the other so-called “brothers” (or “sisters”) were related to Jesus is either unknown or open to debate. We do know that the “brothers” James and Joseph (Joses) were the sons of a woman named “Mary of Clopas,” who is called the “sister” (that is, tribal relative) of the Virgin Mary in John 19. This establishes the general relationship between Jesus and the “brothers” James and Joseph (Joses), i.e., they were also something like cousins with Jesus.

However, we cannot say with complete certainty just how Jesus’ mother was “sisters” with Mary of Clopas. A highly likely scenario is that Mary of Clopas, like Simon, was the child of Clopas (“of Clopas” meaning “daughter of Clopas”), and so this would make Mary of Clopas the Virgin Mary’s niece (by marriage), and Mary of Clopas’ sons (James and Joseph/Joses) the second-cousins of Jesus. So, there were many different ways in which the so-called “brothers” and “sisters” of Jesus were literally related to Him. All we can say with total certainty is that they were not His literal siblings, and the Catholic Church is well within is competency to says this, and a comprehensive appreciation of Scripture and Sacred Tradition backs us up on this 100%.
Oh Brother, Where Art Thou? – rather than give a detailed explanation of everything in the article, I will point out that any James who was a disciple of Jesus could not be a sibling brother. The problem here seems to be that someone thinks that James the Less and James the Lord’s brother are the same person. Where is the evidence for this?
You apparently haven’t read the article; or, if you did, you didn’t read it very carefully. Bonocore never make the claim that James, the brother of the Lord, and the Apostle James, the son of Alphaeus, (which is who I assume you have in mind) are the same person. This possibility (and it is a possibility) is not addressed in his article at all; rather, the article focused exclusively on James the brother of the Lord, who is also known as James the Just, and who was the first bishop of Jerusalem after St. Peter. No one disputes the fact that this first bishop of Jerusalem (James the Just) is the same person as “James the brother of the Lord.” What’s more, the term “James the Less” (or, more correctly, in Greek, “James the Younger” or “James the Little”) is a term correctly applied to Jesus’ so-called “brother” James because the designation “James the Less” (or “the Younger” or “the Little”) comes to us from Mark 15:40, where this James is identified as the SAME “brother” of Jesus (i.e., son of Mary of Clopas and sibling of Joseph/Joses) cited earlier (and elsewhere) in Mark 6:3, Matt. 13:55 and Matt. 27:56, etc., i.e., James the Just, who would become the first bishop of Jerusalem.

So, you are apparently very confused and need to re-examine your rash and untenable claim above. James the Less is the James the brother of the Lord according to Mark 15:40 - compare to Mark 6:3. In both places, he is presented as the brother of Joses (Joseph), sharing a mother with him who is the same person as the Mary of Clopas in John 19:25. This cannot be avoided by anyone who wishes to approach the Biblical text honestly.

continued. . .
 
The “Four Mary’s” in the Gospels – this is a bit more involved. For example, Mr. Bonocore states –
Matthew 27: 55 – The Crucifixion
“Among them were Mary Magdalene and MARY THE MOTHER OF JAMES AND JOSEPH, and the mother of the sons of Zebedee.”
This “Mary” is obviously the mother of the same James and Joseph mentioned in Matt 13:55.
How is this “Mary” “obviously the mother of the same James and Joseph mentioned in Matt 13:55”? On what evidence is this statement based?

Read the Gospel of Matthew from the beginning, and do it as if you are a first century Jew who is reading it for the first time. If you read it in order, you will learn certain things in order. These are:

a) In Matt. 4:21, you will be introduced to a man named Zebedee, and you will be told that he has two sons, James (the most important “James” in the Gospel narrative) and John; and these two sons of Zebedee become Apostles of Jesus in Matt 10.

b) In Matt. 13:55, you will be told that Jesus has “brothers” named James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas.

And then:

c) When you get to Matt. 27:56, you will be (for the first time in the narrative) introduced to a woman named Mary Magdalene, who is among the women at the Cross. You will also be introduced to a second Mary, who is presented as “the mother of the James and Joseph.” Along with them, you will be introduced to a third woman who is identified as “the mother of Zebedee’s sons.”

Now, Mary Magdalene is known and distinguished by her “surname.” So, you know who she is. Likewise, you know from earlier in the narrative who Zebedee and his sons are (i.e., the Apostles James and John), and so it’s not confusing that this third woman at the Cross/Tomb is their mother, and Zebedee’s wife. But, what about the second woman? - this other Mary? She is identified only as “the mother of James and Joseph.” Well, to a first-time reader of Matthew’s Gospel, there is only one possibility; the only “James and Joseph” presented in the narrative are the “James and Joseph” listed among the so-called brothers of Jesus in Matt 13:55. Therefore, the only sensible conclusion as to why this woman is introduced as the “mother of James and Joseph” is that you have already been introduced to her sons earlier in the narrative. And you have! She is the mother of the James and Joseph presented in Matt. 13:55 - the only “James and Joseph” who have been presented to you as the reader. This is simple common sense.

Indeed, turning to the parallel accounts in the Gospel of Mark, any possible doubt that the sons of this Mary are the “brothers” James and Joseph is totally dispelled, for, the form of the name of the second “brother” (“Joseph”) is different in Matthew’s account than it is in Mark’s, but remains consistent within the accounts themselves. In both Matt. 13:55 and Matt. 27:57, he is called “Joseph”; and in Mark 6:3 and Mark 15:40 & 47 he is called “Joses.” This is not a coincidence; one cannot even make the claim that Mark, unlike Matthew, prefers a Hellenized form of “Joseph” (i.e., “Joses”), since in Mark 15:43 (in the same passage where he speaks of the brothers “James and Joses”), Mark speaks of “Joseph of Arimathea,” using the name-form “Joseph” and not “Joses.” So, our only possible conclusion must be that the “James and Joses” mentioned in Mark 15:40, 47 & 16:1 are the same “James and Joses” listed as the “brothers” of Jesus in Mark 6:3. And, according to Mark, these men have a different mother than Jesus, and so cannot be Jesus’ literal siblings.
He also says –
Quote:
Both in Matthew’s account, and more clearly here in Mark’s, this phrase seems to suggest that these particular “brothers” of Jesus lived elsewhere. (Could they have been traveling with Jesus as His followers?)
What indicates that they lived elsewhere?

He explained this in the article. In both Matt. 13:55-56 and Mark 6:3, we are presented with an account in which Jesus RETURNS to His home town of Nazareth, and the locals question Him. When they do this, they say “are not His sisters here with us”? This strongly implies that the “brothers” were not “here with them,” since the people of Nazareth do not say “are not His brothers here with us”?

continued. . .
 
And to suggest that they were traveling with Jesus as followers seems to ignore the fact that His brothers (in the Gospels) were unbelievers (remember John 7:2-10).
It never ceases to amuse me how people like yourself question every minor detail of our claims and demand that we Catholics jump through all sorts of hoops to prove our positions (as I just did above ;-)) while you apparently feel free to leap to wild and unsubstantiated conclusions. Your obvious mistake is the assumption that John 7:2-10 is referring to the same brothers who are listed by name in Matt 13:55 and Mark 6:3. Indeed, you assume (without warrant) that “brothers” refers to only the four men listed in Matt. 13:55 and Mark 6:3, rather than understanding that “brothers” (and “sisters”) was used to refer to Jesus’ entire clan.

The “brothers” (also rendered as “brethren”) in John 7 are not necessarily the four men listed in Matt 13 and Mark 6. As we know from Acts 1:14, some of Jesus’ so-called brothers did believe in Him and were among the faithful who awaited the coming of the Holy Spirit on Pentecost. So, the “brothers” cited in John 7 are apparently another group of brothers, and so distinct from the four listed in Matt. 13 and Mark 6, which just so happens to parallel the succession list of the first bishops of Jerusalem, which ran:

First, James (his literal sibling was Joseph/Joses); second, Simon; third Judas. I would submit to you that the reason that Matt.13:55 and Mark 6:3 lists these four brothers by name (i.e., four “brothers” out of a much larger group of “brothers” - all the male members of Jesus extended family) is because these happened to be the brothers who were known to be leaders in the early Christian community, and who were known to the original readers of the Gospels (see 1 Cor. 9:5). So, your problem (and it is a consistent problem with Evangelicals) is that you are reading Scripture with no knowledge its historical context – in this case, you are ignorant of the fact that it is speaking in terms of an entire clan of “brothers,” and so you impose your modern, American cultural sensibilities on the ancient Sacred Text and assume that Jesus came from a modern, nuclear family and that “brothers” must refer to a limited number of literal siblings therefore, the “brothers” in John 7 must be the same as those in Matt. 13 and Mark 6. However, Acts 1:19 and the consistent understanding of the Catholic Church both prove you wrong. Jesus had many, many “brothers.” He came from an extended tribal clan in Nazaeth, and James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas were merely four members of this clan – four members (perhaps along with others) who happened to believe in Him (per Acts 1:14).
As I have pointed out, Mr. Bonocore has made 2 assertions, but has provided no evidence to support them (not to mention these arguments have been addressed in part at the beginning of this post).
See above. Now, where is your proof that the “brothers” referred to in John 7 are the same four "brothers: referred to in Matt 13:55 and Mark 6:3? Also, where is your proof that Jesus had any literal siblings? Show me some, if you can. You’ve been shown plenty of proof that He did not.
The Catholic Legate – Lot of things here that are not related to the topic, so I won’t bother with it. I am curious, though. Do these articles reflect the “official” teaching of the Roman Catholic Church, or are they simply his interpretation of the “official” teachings of the Roman Catholic Church?
They are faithful to the teaching of the Magisterium of the Catholic Church and Sacred Tradition, yes. They do not claim to speak for the Magisterium of the Catholic Church (since they are not bishops), but all that is presented on the Catholic Legate (and other such Catholic apologetics sites) is in accord with what the Catholic Church formally teaches and intentionally faithful to it. Let’s put it this way: If Rome says “Jump,” they say, “How High?” 🙂
In other words, has the Roman Catholic Church “officially” declared that the James and Joseph of Matt 27:55 is the same James and Joseph mentioned in Matt 13:55?
Yes. 🙂 See The Catechism of the Catholic Church, Section 500, which reads:
500 Against this doctrine the objection is sometimes raised that the Bible mentions brothers and sisters of Jesus.157 The Church has always understood these passages as not referring to other children of the Virgin Mary. In fact James and Joseph, “brothers of Jesus”, are the sons of another Mary, a disciple of Christ, whom St. Matthew significantly calls “the other Mary”.158 They are close relations of Jesus, according to an Old Testament expression.159 "
If not, then wouldn’t that mean Mr. Bonocore is practising Protestantism?
Nice try. But the difference between Catholic Christians and Protestants is the issue of fundamental obedience. We have Christ-established authority over us, and we must be obedient to that authority when that authority speaks. This does not mean that we cannot have opinions or that we cannot use our own God-given ability to reason and discern things. Rather, it means that our personal subjective discernment is not the final authority. However, when it comes to Protestants, personal, subjective discernment IS your final authority; and this is why Protestants are divided into over 30,000 (and growing) sects, all with the same Bible, yet all interpreting it differently, for you have no final Christ-given authority to settle disputes and establish the Spirit-guided Truth.

I will pray for your return to orthodoxy and to the Truth.

Meanwhile, have a blessed Christmas! 🙂

Frances
 
Why is it that some passages in the bible talk about Jesus having brothers and sisters (Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us?" (Matthew 13.54-56)), yet the Catholic Church says he did not? I have read arguments that the Jewish family structure did not have an official name for siblings, but that sounds strange to me. Why wouldn’t they, when having siblings in a family would be considered basic in any culture?
The bible clearly says he has siblings. I don’t know why the church would dispute this. Looks like Mary wasn’t a virgin after all.
This issue comes up a lot and is answered a lot. Mary was a Virgin and Jesus was her only child. The issue of brothers and sisters arises because of a strict interpretation of the Greek word “adelphos” or its plural form “adelphoi” as meaning a sibling brother. But is a strict interpretation warranted in all cases? If adelphos is translated every single time as to mean a sibling brother then the answer is yes. But, if not, then to so translate it is a gross error. So let’s see shall we?

Paul, in Galatians, makes the following comment:

“18 Then after three years, I went up to Jerusalem to get acquainted with Peter and stayed with him fifteen days. 19 I saw none of the other apostles–only James, the Lord’s brother.” [Galatians 1:18-19]

According to this James is an Apostle and is also the Lord’s brother. But is he a sibling brother? Let’s see shall we? There are two Apostles named James. One is James, brother of the Apostle John and scripture says both were sons of Zebedee.

“These are the names of the twelve apostles: first, Simon (who is called Peter) and his brother Andrew; James son of Zebedee, and his brother John;” [Matthew 10:2]

This James is therefore not the Lord’s sibling brother. The other James scripture says is the son of Alphaeus:

“Philip and Bartholomew; Thomas and Matthew the tax collector; James son of Alphaeus, and Thaddaeus;” [Matthew 10:3]

Being the son of Alphaeus this James cannot be the son of Mary. So was Paul and scripture wrong calling James the Lord’s brother? No. The James that Paul saw was James the son of Alphaeus. Alphaeus was the brother of Joseph the husband of Mary. That makes James the cousin of Jesus but in first century times the term ‘brother’ was used quite liberally. To further point this out look at what Jesus says in Luke 22:31-32:

“31 And the Lord said , Simon, Simon, behold , Satan hath desired to have you, that he may sift you as wheat: 32 But I have prayed for thee, that thy faith fail not: and when thou art converted, strengthen thy brethren.” [Luke 22:31-32]

There are two things here. First is the pronouns ‘you’ and ‘thee’ the pronoun ‘you’ is a plural. The pronoun ‘thee’ is singular. So when Jesus says that Satan has demand YOU … to sift YOU as wheat Jesus means all the Apostles not just Simon alone. But Jesus prays for only one of the Apostles, Simon then charges Simon with the job of strengthening the others. That brings us to the second thing here. That is the word brethren. Again it is the Greek word ‘adelphos’. Jesus is calling all of the Apostles Simon’s brothers. But we know from other scriptures that only one Apostle, Andrew, was Simon’s sibling brother. So was Jesus and scripture wrong? Or is it wrong to insist on a strict interpretation of the word adelphos as meaning a sibling brother? Neither Paul nor Jesus nor scripture is wrong. Those who insist on a strict interpretation of adelphos as meaning only a sibling brother are the ones who are wrong.
 
In those days, a woman relied on her husband for support. When he died, the children then supported her. If she was childless, she was in dire straights, because she had no one to rely on for support. Even worse, society considered her to be cursed by God, who gave her no children. Such women were shunned, and suffered greatly, reduced to begging for subsistence.

Jesus had great love for widows. This was evidenced by the “widow’s mite” story in both Luke 21:1-4 and Mark 13:41-44. Christ was so impressed at the widow in the temple that he made a point of teaching His disciples about her selflessness, for the sake of God. Again, Jesus showed His great love for the widow in Luke 7:11. When He and his entourage met the funeral party leaving the gates of the city of Nain, He took Heavenly pity upon the now childless widow who was enroute to bury her only son. He, as God in Christ, raised her only son to life and presented him to her. God raising an only Son to life. See any similarity? Imagine the awe!

Then, in John 19:26-27, Jesus’ last physical act on earth was to give Mary to John, telling him, “This is your mother” and saying to Mary, “This is your son”. Why did He do this at all, and why as He was dying on the cross? If Mary had any other children, they would have supported her for the remainder of her life. For Jesus to do this would have been a great insult and disrespect to Mary’s other children - if she had any. There’s the rub! She had no other children to support her, as John “took her into his home from that hour”

Again, in the Aramaic, there was no word for “cousin”. So, “brother” and “sister” were used to describe various relatives. Remember that in some cultures, to this day, brother and sister can be used to address even those from the same town or village. Union members, did your mother actually give birth to all those “brothers” and “sisters” in the photos at the union hall?
 
The official position of the Church is that “brother” and “sister” can also be used for other family relations (for example, Abraham was Lot’s uncle, but he calls Lot his brother). There are apologists who point to other people with the same name and claim that these are obviously not children of Mary (though not all the named brothers have been pointed to). They will also mention when Jesus was left behind in Jerusalem that there was no mention of brothers or sisters when Joseph and Mary went back to look for Him. They will also point out that there is no place in Scripture that specifically says Mary had other children, or that Joseph and Mary had normal marital relations. There has also been the suggestion that these are children of Joseph from a previous marriage. Seems to me that the “infallible” magisterium of the Church is content to let her “children” figure it out for themselves, just as long as they DON’T think that these were actual siblings of Jesus (how does this show the love of God toward His people?).

I do not believe these apologists (or the “official” Church teaching). I would point out that the New Testament was written in Greek, not Hebrew, and there are certainly words to distinguish “brother” from “cousin”. Since the Scriptures were authored by God, and we are not given a clear indication that the brothers and sisters of Jesus mentioned in Matt 13:54-56 are of some other relation (as we have in the case of Abraham and Lot), I believe that brother means a sibling brother.

I beleive that the language used indicates clearly that Joseph and Mary did have normal marital relations, but not until after the birth of Jesus (her virginity was only necessary up until His birth). When you try and trace the teaching of her perpetual virginity you find yourself reading things like the Protevangelium of James (which indicates that Jesus “beamed out” of Mary rather than being born in the usual way). The Church teaches that Mary maintained her virginal integrity before, DURING and after the birth of Jesus! That goes back directly to this work. I’ve never had a baby (being a man, that’s a good thing), but I do not believe that anyone can maintain their virginal integrity when giving birth (short of doing some surgery). This is also the origin of the idea that Joseph had other children from a previous marriage.

As far as the idea of them being children of Joseph from a previous marriage, the problem with that is the Throne of David goes to the firstborn, which would have been James, not Jesus, if these were children from a previous marriage. Granted, not all Kings were the firstborn, but if Joseph had other children prior to Jesus, His claim to the throne would be in question (certainly, Satan would contest it).

One last arguement I have heard of is that Matthew was originally written in Aramaic (very similar to Hebrew), and like Hebrew does not distinguish between brothers and cousins, and even if this wasn’t the case, the use of the word “brother” is a Hebraism. The idea is that Matthew was written primarily for Jewish converts, and so spoke in a way that they would understand. I don’t think this holds up because the parallel passage in Mark (6:3) also reads “brothers” and “sisters”, and I have heard no arguement about Mark being written in Aramaic or for Jewish converts.
Remember when Jesus “brothers” went to see him and advised him? Jewish culture states that younger brothers should not advise one older than them. Now, according to Hegessipius, James was Torah true. I don’t think he would disregard that tradition if he was younger than Jesus. Subsequently when Mark lists the women at the cross he mentions Mary “mother of James the younger.” Subsequently we get the idea that James the brother of Jesus was James the less.
 
The bible clearly says he has siblings. I don’t know why the church would dispute this. Looks like Mary wasn’t a virgin after all.
You need to take in to consideration that there were not separate words for brother, kinsman and cousins. The word brother was used in describing the relationship between Abraham and Lot.

One thing to think about. Why wasn’t Mary with one of her other children when Jesus was crucified. Why did Jesus give the Apostle John the responsibility of Mary’s care? If she had had other children, she would have gone with them.

Catholic Answers explains it this way.

catholic.com/blog/matt-fradd/jesus-had-brothers
 
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