N
Neithan
Guest
If someone is drunk and their judgment is sufficiently impaired, then isn’t it impossible for them to commit a mortal sin, since ‘full knowledge’ or ‘sufficient reflection’ on the gravity of their actions is not present? Is this true, or can the fact that he/she is drunk in the first place be used as a ‘deliberate ignorance’ argument?
Obviously, if someone is *intentionally *intoxicated, then they’ve already committed a mortal sin; but what if someone is unintentionally intoxicated? If they sin gravely without being able to fully reflect, is it mortal? If not… then that means every unintentionally drunk driver, drunk murderer, drunk rapist etc. etc. whose judgement was sufficiently impaired due to the effect of alcohol is *not guilty *of a mortal sin!! Can this really be the case?
Obviously, if someone is *intentionally *intoxicated, then they’ve already committed a mortal sin; but what if someone is unintentionally intoxicated? If they sin gravely without being able to fully reflect, is it mortal? If not… then that means every unintentionally drunk driver, drunk murderer, drunk rapist etc. etc. whose judgement was sufficiently impaired due to the effect of alcohol is *not guilty *of a mortal sin!! Can this really be the case?