That is exactly what I believe in, a Jesus without sin.
I am guessing you misspoke here?
At any rate, as stated earlier in this thread the biological function of the womb is amoral, and thus does not transmit the sinful condition of fallen man. Man born of Adam does not fall in His mother, he fell in Adam. In the biological function of conception to birth the created being is in sin, not because the mother is a sinner, but because in Adam all have sinned.
Thus, to make a doctrine that argues for Mary’s sinlessness in order to somehow promote and secure the sinlessness of Christ is unnecessary. Indeed it diminishes the unique status of Christ, and negates the very purpose for His virgin birth. It confuses and complicates.This to me is evidence of it’s human origin rather than any divine one.
You are comparing original sin , to the 2000 year old immaculate conception. Your 20th century argument about the Perpetual Virgin Mary and her sinless life, will not stand the test of time, not to mention has no credence to the 2000 year old Christian belief.
Only Jesus is without sin, that’s why He is called “the Righteous.”
Only Jesus perfected the Law and the prophets. And one of the laws state to Honor your father and mother. And you claim Jesus did not so he is with sin. Because you state Mary has sin, and you supply no evidence, deceiver.
Nay. The woman here is Israel, not Mary.