S
StevenFrancis
Guest
With all sympathy and prayers for your niece, no. It is not licit. Ideas? I’m sorry, but this should probably be discussed with a priest. I would guess that it will have something to do with having sex only with fecundity in the heart, and responding to those times as medically appropriate, (you mentioned antihistimines). Perhaps there are antihistimines which can be used as a precaution at other times. It is my understanding, even of NFP, however, that though we can adjust our cycles, and engage in the marrital embrace at times which are less likely to result in pregnancy, that even during those times, we must possess an openness to life in order for it to be licit. With the use of a condom or other artificial birth control measure, there is an intention of blocking the transmission of life per God’s will.My God-daughter and niece confides in me quite a bit, and recently told me that she and her husband have resorted to using condoms because she is allergic to his semen. Apparently, she was getting a very bad inflammatory response to his ejaculate, and her allergy was diagnosed by an allergist and obgyn. She is 27 and has been married 7 months.the allergist told her to use condoms when being intimate with her husband. Apparently, when they want to have children, she can take a high dose of antihistamine and have sperm injected into her falopian tubes (or something.) I am worried that the use of condoms in this situation is still illicit, and that the whole situation makes it too easy to “plan” a family around one’s convenience. Ideas?
Yours in Christ,
Steven