O
Other_Eric
Guest

Hi fix!Again, I am not an attorney, but your argument does not make any sense to me. First, homosexual acts are no longer illegal as far as I know, although I think they should be. Second, how would one know if one were homosexual in these contractual transactions?
A simple contract cannot be assumed to be illegal. If there is proof of some sort than the matter can be investigated. The concept here is public recognition of homosexual unions, not property rights. Property may be passed on as one directs that does not mean one is homosexual.
I thought we were talking about ideals. Civil unions and even marriage are no longer illegal in some states just as sodomy is no longer illegal. How does the fact that sodomy is no longer illegal now effect the ideal prohibitive scenario we mean to construct? If sodomy becomes illegal along with any formal recognition of a same-sex relationship, then the legal scenario I sketched out could be engaged.
If the same-sex couple were reticent about the true nature of their relationship, that might be a way for them to get around any prohibition that we could construct. This, however is only likely to happen in extremely rare circumstances. Prudent silence does not seem to be a characteristic that the gay community has been blessed with. Indeed, part of the problem is that we can’t get them to shut up about it. Even without the rainbow flag on the lawn or the membership in GLAAD, people in the neighborhood will all know darn well what is going on between the two guys down the street.
The true nature of the relationship thus exposed, their contracts would have to be held invalid. Of course, this puts us right back where we were before. Once someone is known to be a homosexual, he no longer retains right of contract, exclusive right to the use of his property or freedom of association. Those are special rights that must be denied to him.