fix:
Whether we look at it from the civil law or the natural law we know that marriage is not about property law or healthcare proxies. That seems to be your premise. That propery and such may be passed on does not mean these issues are what constitute a marriage.
Additionally, many non married people have reasons to enter into transactions to pass on property in the same manner as married people.
The issue of perception may not be rectified through the law. Not all fornicators eventually get married. If you want to start deny property rights to all classifications of citizens then please say which groups we will include.
Hi fix!
Yes marriage is definitely more then healthcare proxies and inheritance. I would say that marriage exists completely independent of civil law. Marriage came first and then the secular government laws followed assigning privileges to the institution. Privileges such as the assumed rights of inheritance and the ability to make healthcare decisions for the partner.
You are right to say that marriage is more than these things. From the perspective of Natural Law, marriage is a supreme act of self-giving. It is a relationship that, even without children, is meant to provide security and emotional stability for the couple that enters into it. It is a method of reining in and disciplining one’s base sexual impulses. None of these things, however, appear in the government’s books and statutes. I’m not sure we would want them to.
So, when we speak of using the law to render illicit a same-sex relationship that attempts to approximate marriage, the judge, whose job it is to interpret the law, must ask himself what the legal definition of marriage is. When he consults the statutes, he will discover that marriage boils down to a set of privileges such as inheritance and the ability to make healthcare decisions. Marriage may very well be more, but the judge is paid to arrive at a legal conclusion, not a theological one.
If the issue of perception cannot be shaped by the law, what is the purpose of attempting to ban same-sex marriage? If the public’s perception of marriage will not be affected by homosexuals taking advantage of a rather obvious loophole in the marriage law, why would it be effected by explicit same-sex marriage? From a Natural Law perspective, it’s not marriage, so no harm is done to the institution.
The answer is that private contracts must be denied to homosexuals for the very reasons that marriage is denied to them. Public perception is of paramount importance. We don’t want to recognize same-sex marriage because we do not want the public to begin to see such a union as legitimate. Similarly, we don’t want the public to begin to see a private contract as a legitimate alternative to marriage for homosexuals.
So, the group we mean to deny the right of private contract to is the group that we need to prevent from perverting marriage. Homosexuals. No one else. I began this conversation saying as much. I even sketched out the method of finding them.
This is beginning to be (if it has not already become) repetitious.