Amount of Rome's Control on Eastern Catholics

  • Thread starter Thread starter ERose
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Very quickly - from what I’ve read, the Maronites had to destroy many Syriac manuals from their libraries that had the taint of “monophysitism.” However, IIRC, this wasn’t exactly opposed by the local clergy. I’m not trying to lay blame on anyone for anything.🙂
Some manuscripts (mainly of certain Anaphorae) were destroyed, but it wasn’t by the Maronites’ own hands. It was the Jesuits. The locals had no say in the matter. But even with that, and the ensuing 16th century latinizations, the distinct Syriac character of the Maronite Church endured. At least it did until … well, you know the rest.
 
Dear brother Cecilianus,

I don’t have time to respond right now. I am interested to see if you have any comments on my statements on the Fr. Toth incident.

Blessings,
Marduk
I don’t think I understand the history well enough to comment on the incident - I was gently but strongly corrected by my pastor when I ventured to make a remark about the topic in the basement after Liturgy one morning (for putting all the blame on Archbishop Ireland rather than the American bishops as a whole). My understanding is that the Pope simply had no clue what was actually going on when he received a request for clerical celibacy to be mandated - he didn’t understand that enforcing such a request would entail abolishing the Byzantine rite by preventing all of the Ruthenian priests from serving. I was thinking about the issue from the viewpoint of Fr. Toth himself - he, as a professor of canon law - knew fully well that he and his flock had a right to his rite; when he presented himself to Archbishop Ireland (according to the Orthodox account of the event) that he wasn’t Catholic and that his parish was going to be merged with the local Roman Catholic parishes and he himself sent back to Europe; he appealed to the Eastern Catholic bishops in Europe without any luck (the story even hinted - quite unconvincingly - that his letters never even got there, due to the machinations of the bishops); as a last recourse he sought an Orthodox bishop to accept him because there was no other way for him to preserve the Eastern Catholic faith that they had a canonical right to. I don’t feel comfortable venerating him as a saint, but it does seem that he actually did the correct thing, especially in light of the fact that there are questions regarding Archbishop Ireland’s orthodoxy (he was pushing for Americanizations and Protestantizations such as the use of the vernacular in the Liturgy in order to try to integrate Catholics into American society - the same reason he was trying to suppress the Eastern liturgy - a good seventy years before such innovations would be permitted by the Ecumenical Council).

He led the exodus of hundreds of thousands of Ruthenians into schism, but by doing so he preserved their canonical rights when the Pope of Rome was unable (having been misled by the American bishops) to be their advocate. I don’t know whether they were right to do so. As a Catholic, it would seem hard to say yes. As an Easterner, it would seem hard to say no.
 
I… he preserved their canonical rights when the Pope of Rome was unable (having been misled by the American bishops) to be their advocate. I don’t know whether they were right to do so. As a Catholic, it would seem hard to say yes. As an Easterner, it would seem hard to say no.
I don’t think the Pope was mislead at all.

The policy was very clear, well before the Father Toth incident, and the Papacy was well aware of it and supportive:

There was to be only the Latin rite in the USA.
 
I don’t think the Pope was mislead at all.

The policy was very clear, well before the Father Toth incident, and the Papacy was well aware of it and supportive:

There was to be only the Latin rite in the USA.
Can you please give examples where the Papacy supposedly “supported” this policy?
 
Can you please give examples where the Papacy supposedly “supported” this policy?
I don’t think we need to take brother Michael’s statement in a bad way.

I do agree with him, in fact, that the Pope probably knew what was going on. Please understand that according to Vatican 1, the Pope has no authority to impede the local authority of the local bishop, but rather must support and protect it.

What the Pope did in “support” of the local Latin bishops is really no different from, say, the more recent example of the Pope’s support for the local hierarchy in India in the face of Latinizers who opposed their hierarchy. It is always the Pope’s responsibility to defend the local authority of his brother bishops. It might seem unfair to the minority in the short run, but in the context of Sacred Tradition, the Pope is being true to his divine responsibility.

The fact is, the Pope does not have proper control of every single diocese in the world. He has no authority to impede the divinely-given authority of the local bishop in his local diocese. But people often misunderstand this.

Here is a statement from HH JP2 the Great, of thrice-blessed memory:
"**Vatican I’s definition, however, does not assign to the Pope a power or responsibility to intervene daily in the local churches. It means only to exclude the possibility of imposing norms on him to limit the exercise of the primacy. The Council expressly states: “This power of the Supreme Pontiff does not at all impede the exercise of that power of ordinary and immediate episcopal jurisdiction with which the bishops, appointed by the Holy Spirit (cf. Acts 20:28) as successors of the apostles, shepherd and govern the flock entrusted to them as true pastors…” (DS 3061).

Indeed, we should keep in mind a statement of the German episcopate (1875) approved by Pius IX that said: “The episcopate also exists by virtue of the same divine institution on which the office of the Supreme Pontiff is based. It enjoys rights and duties in virtue of a disposition that comes from God himself, and the Supreme Pontiff has neither the right nor the power to change them.” The decrees of Vatican I are thus understood in a completely erroneous way when one presumes that because of them “episcopal jurisdiction has been replaced by papal jurisdiction”; that the Pope “is taking for himself the place of every bishop”; and that the bishops are merely “instruments of the Pope: they are his officials without responsibility of their own” (DS 3115).**"

Easterns during the time of Fr. Toth wanted the Pope to overthrow the local authority of Latin bishops in their favor.

The Tradtionalists wanted the Pope to overthrow the local authority of local Latin bishops to preserve the TLM.

Certain Eastern Catholics want the Pope to overthrow the local authority of local Ruthenian bishops to preserve their own Liturgy.

Latinizers in Ukraine and India want the Pope to overthrow the local authority of their hierarchs in order to preserve their Latinizations.

The expected help is not coming not because the Pope does not want to help, but simply because it is not within his authority to impede the local authority of the local bishop. But people who misunderstand this sadly and wrongly end up blaming the Pope for everything.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Can you please give examples where the Papacy supposedly “supported” this policy?
The First Plenary Council of Baltimore, meeting in 1852AD, declared the following as formal policy of the church:

#3 The Roman Ritual, adopted by the First Council of Baltimore, is to be observed in all dioceses, and all are forbidden to introduce customs or rites foreign to the Roman usage.

The First Plenary Council of Baltimore was approved by Pope Pius IX shortly afterward. The First Council [Provincial] of Baltimore was in 1829AD, and so must have been approved by Pope Pius VIII, who ascended the throne in May of that year.

These both were before our righteous father Saint Alexis Toth was actually even born.

The Latin bishops were well within their rights to ban the eastern liturgies once they had the approval of the respective Popes. No one in Rome, no Pope nor curial official, seems to have bothered to instruct the American bishops of any promises to or obligations on behalf of the Byzantine rite Catholics that had been standing since 1596, 1649 and 1724AD. If the American bishops (mostly Irish and some German) were unaware of standing obligations to care for the eastern rite Catholics, they should have been carefully instructed and corrected.

As it is, the very wording of the document shows that they were indeed aware of such ‘foreign rites’ in the church, and deliberately excluded them with Papal approval.
 
And when, in 1908, the Pope discovered the Western Rites were equally suppressed in violation of the friary charters, 1st Plenary Cannon 3 was revoked. That 80 years is a dark blotch in Church History, for the treaties with the Melkite, Ruthenian and Ukrainian churches were overruled wrongly by a local council.
 
And when, in 1908, the Pope discovered the Western Rites were equally suppressed in violation of the friary charters, 1st Plenary Cannon 3 was revoked. That 80 years is a dark blotch in Church History, for the treaties with the Melkite, Ruthenian and Ukrainian churches were overruled wrongly by a local council.
Aramis: Don’t you remember this thread -
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=208141&page=4 - starting at post #52.
This odd idea that the Latins were conspiring in 1852 to keep Greek Catholicism out of the US is quite a flight of fancy, that was poorly supported when it came up on the former thread.

Were there jurisdictional struggles back then? Sure. But, notwithstanding the consuming effort of the American bishops to establish an American church (the were still a province of Vatican at that time) that was post-ethnic and uniform in practice, we prevailed in the establishment of our eparchies here, ultimately becoming recognized as particular churches in a sui juris sense, and recovering from a long period of Latinization and, I hope, a period of American homogenization. All of this happened in America in the better part of a century - in other words fast on the ecclesiastical time scale.

Now there doesn’t seem to be a problem of Catholic bishops welcoming other Catholic bishops with overlapping territory. This is an interesting and amazing development. But is it a gross anachronism to look back a century with the expectation that this sentiment should have prevailed at that time.
 
Dear brother Michael,
The First Plenary Council of Baltimore, meeting in 1852AD, declared the following as formal policy of the church:

#3 The Roman Ritual, adopted by the First Council of Baltimore, is to be observed in all dioceses, and all are forbidden to introduce customs or rites foreign to the Roman usage.

The First Plenary Council of Baltimore was approved by Pope Pius IX shortly afterward. The First Council [Provincial] of Baltimore was in 1829AD, and so must have been approved by Pope Pius VIII, who ascended the throne in May of that year.

These both were before our righteous father Saint Alexis Toth was actually even born.

The Latin bishops were well within their rights to ban the eastern liturgies once they had the approval of the respective Popes. No one in Rome, no Pope nor curial official, seems to have bothered to instruct the American bishops of any promises to or obligations on behalf of the Byzantine rite Catholics that had been standing since 1596, 1649 and 1724AD. If the American bishops (mostly Irish and some German) were unaware of standing obligations to care for the eastern rite Catholics, they should have been carefully instructed and corrected.

As it is, the very wording of the document shows that they were indeed aware of such ‘foreign rites’ in the church, and deliberately excluded them with Papal approval.
I understand what you are saying. But can you please tell us how the Popes were supposed to know of the Easterns who migrated to the U.S. (or Canada or Australia)? Did the Church even have formal categorized census at this time? Were there even enough Eastern Christians in a particular area that could constitute a formal congregation in the early 19th century?

It seems Fr. Toth was the first to test these waters(?). I think we need to understand that the idea of “ritual jurisdiction within territorial jurisdiction” was unknown at this time in the Catholic and Eastern Orthodox Churches (though it already existed for several centuries in Oriental Orthodoxy). I definitely agree with you that if there were enough Easterns for a congregation, the local Latin bishops should have provided for them. But my question is, until the latter 19th century, were there enough? The movement certainly had its painful birth pangs, but the events did result in the Pope providing the Easterns with their own bishop, which is a good thing, I would think.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Dvdjs,
Were there jurisdictional struggles back then? Sure. But, notwithstanding the consuming effort of the American bishops to establish an American church (the were still a province of Vatican at that time) that was post-ethnic and uniform in practice, we prevailed in the establishment of our eparchies here, ultimately becoming recognized as particular churches in a sui juris sense, and recovering from a long period of Latinization and, I hope, a period of American homogenization. All of this happened in America in the better part of a century - in other words fast on the ecclesiastical time scale.

Now there doesn’t seem to be a problem of Catholic bishops welcoming other Catholic bishops with overlapping territory. This is an interesting and amazing development. But is it a gross anachronism to look back a century with the expectation that this sentiment should have prevailed at that time.
You seem to have a lot of knowledge about this! 👍 Perhaps you could help me with my the question I asked brother Michael. What was the population of Eastern Catholics in the U.S. in the early - mid-19th century? Was it significant enough for Latin bishops to establish local parishes for them?

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Dvdjs,

You seem to have a lot of knowledge about this! 👍 Perhaps you could help me with my the question I asked brother Michael. What was the population of Eastern Catholics in the U.S. in the early - mid-19th century? Was it significant enough for Latin bishops to establish local parishes for them?

Blessings,
Marduk
Approximately zero.

Serfdom was not abolished in Austria Hungary until 1848. Among the people who emigrated, there was no liberty to do so. Moreover, there was no demand for their labor in America until the late 1870’s.
 
I don’t think the Pope was mislead at all.

The policy was very clear, well before the Father Toth incident, and the Papacy was well aware of it and supportive:

There was to be only the Latin rite in the USA.
Not completly accurate, because the Vatican was irritating the US Latin bishops, by assigning Reverend Andrii Hodobay as a visitator for the Ruthenians and then later, in response to the Austro-Hungarian Ministry, apointed Bishop Ortynsky as ordinary of the Ruthenians. That was 1907 but American bishops complained which resulted in a Vatican decree later in 1907 Ea Semper, to be reversed in 1913 with Vatican decree Cum Episcopo.

Looking back, the first Ruthenian Greek Catholic (Byzantine and Ukrainian of today combined) was in Shenandoah, PA, Rev. Ivan Volansky from Archeparchy of L’viv, in 1884 and he established six other parishes in PA. By 1890 there were ten Greek Catholic priests in the USA. The problem was there was not a Greek Catholic jurisdiction in the USA so they had to be under the administration of the Latin Church, and they tried to elude the Latin bishops, who were trying to establish a unified American Catholic Church. In 1891, Archbishop John Ireland of Saint Paul denied Fr. Alexis Toth faculties after which he choose schism. Yet by 1900 there were 43 Greek Catholic priests.

But, mentioned before, in 1907 the Vatican removed the apostolic visitator Hodobay and appointed Bishop Ortynsky, but due to objection of the Latin hierarchy he was limited (decree Ea Semper) until, due to Bishop Sheptyts’kyi’s efforts, he had full jurisdiction in 1913 with the decree Cum Episcopo.

1913.05.28: Established as Ruthenian Ordinariate of United States of America
1924.05.08: Ukrainian - Promoted as Apostolic Exarchate of United States of America
1924.05.08: Ruthenian - Established as Apostolic Exarchate of United States of America
 
I just want to say I am soooooo impressed by the knowledge of my Eastern brethren regarding the history of their Churches. It really puts a lot of things in perspective for me, puts doubts in my mind to rest.

THANK YOU!!!

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Aramis: Don’t you remember this thread -
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=208141&page=4 - starting at post #52.
This odd idea that the Latins were conspiring in 1852 to keep Greek Catholicism out of the US is quite a flight of fancy, that was poorly supported when it came up on the former thread.

Were there jurisdictional struggles back then? Sure. But, notwithstanding the consuming effort of the American bishops to establish an American church (the were still a province of Vatican at that time) that was post-ethnic and uniform in practice, we prevailed in the establishment of our eparchies here, ultimately becoming recognized as particular churches in a sui juris sense, and recovering from a long period of Latinization and, I hope, a period of American homogenization. All of this happened in America in the better part of a century - in other words fast on the ecclesiastical time scale.

Now there doesn’t seem to be a problem of Catholic bishops welcoming other Catholic bishops with overlapping territory. This is an interesting and amazing development. But is it a gross anachronism to look back a century with the expectation that this sentiment should have prevailed at that time.
The problem was not that they were blocking the ECC’s (at the time, primarily the Maronites, Italo-Albanians, Ukrainians, and Ruthenians), but the other western rites. Which violated the charters of the Carmelites, Dominicans, Carthusians…

…That it happened to also violate the unions of the Ruthenians and Ukrainians was a side effect.

It was a political effort to unify the American Church but also prevent it from developing a national character. (Instead, it created a system of ethnic parishes of the Latin Rite… just look at NYC, Chi-Town, or Detroit & their suburbs.)
 
Dear brother Michael,

I understand what you are saying. But can you please tell us how the Popes were supposed to know of the Easterns who migrated to the U.S. (or Canada or Australia)? Did the Church even have formal categorized census at this time? Were there even enough Eastern Christians in a particular area that could constitute a formal congregation in the early 19th century?
I don’t think that there was much immigration of eastern Catholics in those years, probably almost none. These bishops were not ignorant, they were pursuing an ideal.

Today we have a much greater appreciation for diversity, and it is through that lens we are observing the past.

But in those days uniformity was more highly prized. We don’t have to agree with that, but at the time it was a value many thought worth working toward. I can’t say that I blame them.

The problem here is not contingent on the presence of eastern catholic immigration. They only banned the foreign rites because of the possibility there would be immigration, otherwise, why bother making any point of it?

The Popes approved these conditions. However, if the Papacy had made promises or agreements to eastern Orthodox Catholics that needed to be honored, it is the Pope’s responsibility to communicate this information in very clear terms to local synods around the world if they are acting contrary to those obligations and promises.

That’s the whole purpose of submitting the acts and decrees to the Supreme Pontiff. The history of the Councils of Baltimore shows that the Supreme Pontiff closely vetted them, asked for changes and sometimes withheld approval of certain line items. But there is nothing on this matter of rites foreign to the Roman usage.
It seems Fr. Toth was the first to test these waters(?).
He wasn’t the first to encounter these problems. We know that because there was already a reaction to married prists and complaints. Back in Europe father Toth was thought to be acceptable, his spouse and daughter had already both gone to God, and he was celibate.

Let us remember that the bishops were in their right to regulate the liturgical practices within their dioceses. It’s their job. The synod decided that there would be uniformity of practice. Separately, they had also acted to remove trusteeism from the church (it was a real problem early in Catholic history in the USA).

The Ruthenians (by that I mean the Ukrainians as well as the sub-Carpathians) were generally unhappy about having to worship in Latin Catholic parishes, probably especially the Polish ones 😉 .

So they set up little community organizations, burial funds and that sort of thing, and even after being refused permission they raised money to build temples, this repeatedly happened without permission of the Latin bishops. The clubs or societies called for priests from the old country, but those priests had to be sent by their bishops, and those bishops instructed the priests to present themselves to the local Catholic bishops fror permission and blessing to serve.

Everyone knew the canons, and this part was proper. What became a surprise to them, I suppose, was to find out the local Latin bishops’ responses. There was a lot of push back to this affront to their authority.

The difference with father Toth was that he was a professor of canon law at a Catholic seminary, he knew the history and the promises, and it looks as though he would have been happy to remain in the Papal church he served so faithfully if he had been accepted graciously by the bishop and he had a sense that the church was honoring it’s promises to the Orthodox predecessors (who had thereby submitted to Rome).
I think we need to understand that the idea of “ritual jurisdiction within territorial jurisdiction” was unknown at this time in the Catholic and Eastern Orthodox Churches (though it already existed for several centuries in Oriental Orthodoxy). I definitely agree with you that if there were enough Easterns for a congregation, the local Latin bishops should have provided for them. But my question is, until the latter 19th century, were there enough? The movement certainly had its painful birth pangs, but the events did result in the Pope providing the Easterns with their own bishop, which is a good thing, I would think.

Blessings,
Marduk
The decision to ban foreign rites was made well in advance of the contingency. The policy was clear, if there was to be any non-Roman rite Catholic immigration they were to attend the Latin rite parishes, regardless of their numbers.

The concept of ritual jurisdiction overlapping territorial jurisdiction is novel.

Actually, the Ruthenians were out of place to oppose the bishops, very really disobedient, and the Vatican was wrong not to correct the American bishops at the time they made these policies. The only blameless ones here are the Latin bishops!

Bishop Ireland’s rudeness is a different matter.
 
Not completly accurate, because the Vatican was irritating the US Latin bishops, by assigning Reverend Andrii Hodobay as a visitator…
I disagree.

The father Toth-archbishop Ireland incident happened in 1889AD.

In 1890 the congregation in Minneapolis petitioned the Russian Metropolia to accept them and completely severed ties with the Archdiocese of Minneapolis. In 1892 the synod of the Russian church agreed to accept them and most of the schism unfolded over the next ten years from parish to parish.

It wasn’t until 1905 that Rome took any action at all, and that was because the danger of schism was spreading back into Europe and the alarm it was causing there. So we have fifteen years of unfolding and evolving schism with Rome doing nothing.

It looks pretty obvious that had the Ruthenians complacently accepted the Latin priests they had been instructed to follow (and many actually did), Rome would have been satisfied.

That the appointment of Andrii Hodobay annoyed the local Latin bishops I have no doubt, but he actually had no authority of his own, he was commpletely dependent on the cooperation and good graces of the Latin bishops. His successor Ortinkij was almost equally powerless. One can sense Rome’s reluctance to act, doing the absolute minimum and hoping it will suffice.

This was a remedial action after a decade and a half of widening schism. Band-Aids for a gaping wound.
 
Dear brother Michael,

Thank you so much for your response. I believe you give a fair assessment of the situation – but (always a “but” :D), I would like to make several comments:
The problem here is not contingent on the presence of eastern catholic immigration. They only banned the foreign rites because of the possibility there would be immigration, otherwise, why bother making any point of it?
As brother Aramis astutely pointed out, the “Rites” being referred to were probably the other Latin Rites. I think it is too fantastic to assume that the bishops were prognosticators of the conditions in Europe which could cause mass migration of Eastern Catholics to the U.S. So I find it hard to accept your theory that the U.S. Bishops, and the subsequent approval by a Pope, was made with a specific bias against the Eastern Churches. What is the time difference between the Synods in Baltimore and the mass Eastern Catholic immigrations to the U.S. The Church teaches that bishops can participate in the infallible Magisterium, can confer Grace, and can forgive sins. But I am not aware of any Church teachings that claim that Bishops have the power to tell the future.😃
The Popes approved these conditions. However, if the Papacy had made promises or agreements to eastern Orthodox Catholics that needed to be honored, it is the Pope’s responsibility to communicate this information in very clear terms to local synods around the world if they are acting contrary to those obligations and promises.
I believe - rather, I know - that Pope Leo XIII did in fact do this. If the local Latin bishops refused to heed his encyclicals, why should the Pope be blamed? Please consider that carefully.

In fact, have you ever read “the Historical Mirror - Greek Rite Catholics 1884 - 1963.” The records show that the initial persecution of the Eastern Catholics halted in 1890’s partly due to the Pope’s efforts. I believe brother DVDJS gave a link to it earlier in the thread.
Actually, the Ruthenians were out of place to oppose the bishops, very really disobedient, and the Vatican was wrong not to correct the American bishops at the time they made these policies. The only blameless ones here are the Latin bishops!

Bishop Ireland’s rudeness is a different matter.
I accept your viewpoint here, except the part about blaming the papacy.
It wasn’t until 1905 that Rome took any action at all, and that was because the danger of schism was spreading back into Europe and the alarm it was causing there. So we have fifteen years of unfolding and evolving schism with Rome doing nothing.
I find this statement very puzzling. I don’t understand the logic behind it. We constantly hear (with which I agree) that the Pope should not micromanage the Church. Yet it seems that when it is convenient to make the Pope the patsy for the sake of demeaning the papacy, all of a sudden we expect the Pope to micromanage the Church. I find that logic very – well, illogical.

In any case, the historical records show that the Pope had a definite hand in the betterment of conditions for the Eastern Catholics in the U.S. in the 1890’s. This improvement in conditions came on the heels of a petition sent to the Pope by a clergy Synod in Hazelton, PA (December 3-4, 1891). The Pope’s reply came in February, 1892, which stipulated that more Eastern clergy could come to the U.S. Their liturgical Traditions were now ensured to be preserved, but then new problems arose - namely, the conflict over who owned Church property. So that situation developed further. The Apostolic Visitator was appointed in 1902.

In short, it is simply false to say that “It wasn’t until 1905 that Rome took any action at all.”

The details of Fr. Toth’s sojourn to Orthodoxy (from the pages of the Historical Mirror) is interesting. Apparently, he did not feel the Russian Orthodox were meeting the needs of his flock, and wanted to move jurisdictions. But his request was denied because the other Church (Serbian Orthodox) did not serve the Hungarian Greek Rite. Interesting, and sad. It’s obvious Fr. Toth was a good pastor.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Michael,

Thank you so much for your response. I believe you give a fair assessment of the situation – but (always a “but” :D), I would like to make several comments:

As brother Aramis astutely pointed out, the “Rites” being referred to were probably the other Latin Rites.
The decree refers to foreign rites. There is no ‘probably’.

If they wanted to exclude the unique practices (which are not very different, after all) of religious orders I think that they could have been clearer than that. There is nothing foreign about religious orders which were established throughout western Europe, and often were headquartered in Rome.

That the bishops might have also not wanted the religious order variations in the Roman liturgy would be a secondary matter, as they did not mention it in the decrees from Baltimore.
I think it is too fantastic to assume that the bishops were prognosticators of the conditions in Europe which could cause mass migration of Eastern Catholics to the U.S.
No one said anything about mass migrations. I wrote of a desire for uniformity.
So I find it hard to accept your theory that the U.S. Bishops, and the subsequent approval by a Pope, was made with a specific bias against the Eastern Churches.
I did not state that there was a bias against the eastern churches.

The eastern rites were not even considered churches at the time, they were rites of the Roman Catholic church.

The ‘bias’, if you want to call it that, was for uniformity. I thought I made that clear.
What is the time difference between the Synods in Baltimore and the mass Eastern Catholic immigrations to the U.S. The Church teaches that bishops can participate in the infallible Magisterium, can confer Grace, and can forgive sins. But I am not aware of any Church teachings that claim that Bishops have the power to tell the future.😃
Nor does the church teach that bishops should be assumed to be ignorant.
We constantly hear (with which I agree) that the Pope should not micromanage the Church. Yet it seems that when it is convenient to make the Pope the patsy for the sake of demeaning the papacy, all of a sudden we expect the Pope to micromanage the Church. I find that logic very – well, illogical.
It is a power he reserves to himself. We should expect him to use it well and justly if he expects to keep it.
In any case, the historical records show that the Pope had a definite hand in the betterment of conditions for the Eastern Catholics in the U.S. in the 1890’s.
As the howling from Hungary intensified perhaps.

All the while banning the married priesthood at the request of Latin bishops, in France and in the USA, then in Australia.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top