Hi,
Christians believe that Christ took human flesh so that He alone could atone for human sin.
True repentance is what is required for atonement of sins. Sins cause separation between God and mankind, leading to a spiritual death, and repentance means to turn away from sinfulness and to return to God in love.
Hebrews sacrificed a paschal lamb, but no lamb could ever atone for human sin, as animals have no understanding and no guilt.
It is the understanding of humans which is relevant here, i.e. a penitent heart, mind and soul. The animal is sacrificed, with the person willing to sacrifice his lower desires for the sake of God, just as the lower animal is sacrificed. The human being should be willing to drain the blood of his lower desires just as the animal’s blood is drained. It is not it’s flesh or blood of the animal that reaches God, rather it is the righteousness of the persons heart that reaches God. That is why sacrifices without sincere intent become empty rituals, and are not accepted by God, who looks at the heart.
He replaced the Paschal lamb, becoming that spotless victim for the sake of mankind.
The law of sacrifice is that the lower is sacrificed for the higher, never the other way round. Reflect on this, and you will realise the implications of it. Why would Jesus, being higher, be sacrificed for the sake of sinners, who are much lower? Is Jesus lower than sinners in the eyes of God?
In all of this, God was not separated from God - one of three divine Persons left heaven so as to atone for sin before returning to heaven. Angels leave heaven, but are not separated from God, as they return to heaven once their work is done. The same With Christ.
You make it sound like physical separation, whereas I was talking of spiritual separation from God. Do you believe heaven is a physical place, like earth is? Do you believe God is physical?
Rather, it was Jewish law which did not permit it. The Romans were free to execute whomever they found displeasing.
The Jews were not allowed to implement their capital punishments when it was the Romans who had authority in the land. The Jews had to take their cases of capital punishments to the Roman authorities.
If so, then why would Pilate be surprised that Jesus was dead before evening fell?
Pilate was surprised at the erroneous report that Jesus was dead because he knew quite well that crucifixion took days, not a few hours. It took an average of 3 days, sometimes even lasting up to a week. Crucifixion was a lingering type of death.
Others were paying only for their own sins, and may have lived days on the cross. Jesus was paying for the sins of the world - past, present and future. Would not that hasten his death?
Why would that hasten his death? There is no logical reason for it. People do not die on the cross because of sins. An innocent person falsely accused would also take about the same amount of time to die as would a mass murderer, all other things being the same.
Remember also that He said “I have the power to lay my life down and take it up again.”
Jesus spoke in parables. Why insist on taking it literally?
But, these are modern fables. Such could not have been hidden from the Jewish authorities. They would have reported as much to Rome.
Many things were kept hidden from the Jews. For example:
- [John 19:38] After this Joseph of Arimathe′a, who was a disciple of Jesus, but secretly, for fear of the Jews, asked Pilate that he might take away the body of Jesus, and Pilate gave him leave. So he came and took away his body. 39 Nicode′mus also, who had at first come to him by night, came bringing a mixture of myrrh and aloes, about a hundred pounds’ weight. *
Why did Nicodemus come to Pilate by night, in secret?! If not to discuss a plan to save Jesus, what else?
I understand the Muslim view that the scriptures were somehow corrupted. This does not make sense when one realizes that ancient manuscripts that have been preserved are identical to other manuscripts which have only recently been unearthed in archeological excavations.
The view I know if is that the gospels were not even accurate when first written, as they are not divine revelation, nor do they claim to be so themselves. Rather, it is made clear that these are the writings of some human authors. And humans make errors of judgement.
In the same sense, how can we be sure that the Quran is not corrupted?
Orientalists have admitted it. The Qur’an itself claims to be the literal word of God and guarantees that it will be preserved. The Bible makes no such claims, as it was not meant for all times or for all peoples.
Anyway, if Jesus was a prophet sent by God, what sort of God would then curse His own messenger? Makes no sense to me.
Unlike Jews and Christians, Muslims don’t believe Jesus was accursed by God. He did not die on the cross. However one may interpret Deut 21:23, it applies to someone who is hung dead, not to someone who is brought down alive, like Jesus was. Muslims believe Jesus was blessed by God, not accursed by God.
Peace.
