Just one more point of clarification. For purposes of this discussion, AC did 2 things:
- It notified the Anglican Communion the RCC considered their Orders “null and void”.
- It gave the formula to the world of how to have valid Orders. Proper form, intent (often demonstrated by the form), and laying on of hands by a valid Bishop.
My two earlier examples of Bishops Costa and Milingo demonstrate validity is not affected by excommunication or heresy as long as form and intent are present.
From a formulary standpoint, and purposes of this discussion, whether the Anglican Communion existed prior to the consecration with the first Old Catholic Bishop is immaterial. What causes valid Succession are the three things coming together at one point.
From the standpoint of Anglicans who rely on the Old Catholic consecrations as basis of validity, the Anglican Church could have been formed the morning of the first consecration. What was important is there was a valid Bishop, using a valid ordinal (form) with the intent of making a Bishop. At that point, Succession would have been passed on.
From a practical standpoint, with the knowledge and directive of AC, I would think if the Anglicans went to the trouble of bringing an Old Catholic Bishop over, they would have ensured the other two parts were in line. It is not so much that the Anglican Ordinal was “corrected” in 1662, but that a valid ordinal was used by the Old Catholic Bishop at the time of those 1932 and subsequent consecrations.
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And so, taking this all into consideration, we may be able to more easily accept Cardinal Francesco Coccopalmerio’s statement that “something happened”.
Thanks for the discussion.
\p.s. I am sorry this topic causes such consternation to some. I’ve started another thread
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=14652216&posted=1#post14652216 where we can discuss that more deeply if you wish.