Another Question For Protestants

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ChiFaithful

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I’m trying to understand the logic again. Please explain to me belief in the Trinity and disbelief in the Immaculate Conception.

Thanks. I appreciate everyone’s help. Again, I’m not trying to bash anyone, and I prefer that everyone else respect the beliefs of others. I just don’t understand or have heard the reasoning for both.
 
Maybe you could share the reason why you think the two things are connected?

We believe in the Trinity because the Church came to the conclusion that this was the only way to maintain the unity of God, the divinity of Christ and the Holy Spirit, and the Biblical teaching that Father, Son, and Holy Spirit have some kind of relationship.All these things are taught in Scripture, and the Church has never been able to come up with an alternative to the Trinity as a way of explaining the Biblical record. Furthermore, the Trinity has been the consensus of Christians for a very long time now–more traditional Protestants such as myself would say that there is no possibility that it could ever be considered un-Biblical because it has such a weight of Christian tradition behind it. More anti-traditional Protestants are unwilling to say that, but they would say that the logic behind the doctrine is Biblical and has been proved to be so over and over again.

Edwin
 
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Contarini:
Maybe you could share the reason why you think the two things are connected?

We believe in the Trinity because the Church came to the conclusion that this was the only way to maintain the unity of God, the divinity of Christ and the Holy Spirit, and the Biblical teaching that Father, Son, and Holy Spirit have some kind of relationship.All these things are taught in Scripture, and the Church has never been able to come up with an alternative to the Trinity as a way of explaining the Biblical record. Furthermore, the Trinity has been the consensus of Christians for a very long time now–more traditional Protestants such as myself would say that there is no possibility that it could ever be considered un-Biblical because it has such a weight of Christian tradition behind it. More anti-traditional Protestants are unwilling to say that, but they would say that the logic behind the doctrine is Biblical and has been proved to be so over and over again.

Edwin
Thanks for your explanation. I don’t think that you answered the whole question though. To answer yours, they are two things believed by Catholics that are not both believed by Protestants. Therefore, I see it as a valid question.

I’m not going to dissect or attack yours or anyone’s explanation, but would enjoy reading the answers. Thanks again.
 
I would just like to add that the Orthodox also do not believe in the immaculate conception of Mary because it does not fit within the confines of Ancestral Sin as her being the seed of David.
 
Thanks for the reply. But I wasn’t asking about what “confines” Eastern religions believe are imposed on whatever God might want.

Rather, I was asking the question in my original post. Please stay on topic.
 
Wow I go away for a while and the new crowd is a little quick to anger.

Anyways, not all Protestants deny the immaculate conception of Mary. Many denominations leave it up to the parishioner to decide because they feel that it is neither confirmed nor condemned by Scripture. There is also a vary large portion of Protestants that are misinformed and think that the Immaculate Conception means Jesus was of a virgin birth and consequently they readily embrace the Immaculate Conception title.

The few Protestant denominations that have taken a hard stand against the Immaculate Conception do it on the basis that they feel if Mary was born as was born Eve without stain and ultimately lived a life without sin that would mean that she would not need a redeemer and the scriptures are clear that all need a redeemer.

The Trinity is spoken of in scripture… what is lacking is the fullness of the Trinitarian Doctrine that came out of later Ecumenical Councils and Creeds. To this I would say that you have just about as much agreement with the Protestants in this area as you do with Mary’s stained or unstained person.

You have groups saying Mary was not the Mother of God, others viewing God in the Modal heresy of the first few centuries, and in some cases you have Oneness Pentecostals that have taken it to the point where I do not even consider them Christian.

Lutherans and other groups of that nature do not condemn all of the findings or even the vast majority of the Creeds and various propagations of the first centuries of Christianity. They are the Churches that follow the view of Sola Scriptura in a sense that truth exists outside of the Bible but the Bible is the source of all authority and all things must be measured against it…

Hope that helps…
 
The Trinity is a term which attempts to define the exact relationship that appears throughout scripture between Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. The relationship and the complexity of it is throughout scripture. From early on, Christians have attempted to come to terms with how to best define this.

The Immaculate Conception is not even hinted at in scripture except for one phrase…“full of grace” Luke 1:28 of which the meaning of is greatly debated(of course Catholics disagree thus the whole second Eve…Ark of Covenant argument). It is also a later developing Christian tradition based upon my reserach.

BH
 
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ChiFaithful:
Thanks for your explanation. I don’t think that you answered the whole question though. To answer yours, they are two things believed by Catholics that are not both believed by Protestants. Therefore, I see it as a valid question.

I’m not going to dissect or attack yours or anyone’s explanation, but would enjoy reading the answers. Thanks again.
I’m baffled. Protestants believe in the Trinity. There are those who don’t, but Trinitarian Protestants would generallly agree that we have far more in common with Catholics than with non-Trinitarians.

I am happy to tell you why I don’t believe in the IC, but it might be better first for you to say why you think a Trinitarian Christian ought to believe in the IC (apart from the authority of the See of Rome defining the dogma).

Edwin
 
I don’t think you understand my point above, so I don’t mean to baffle you. I simply said that most Protestants believe in the Trinity, but not the Immaculate Conception (therefore not both). I think that you may have misinterpreted that as meaning “neither,” which I understand is not true.

If you want a summary of why Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception, please search the 90,000 posts on the topic on this board. Here’s a clue: It’s also based on Scripture.

To alleviate any distress, I think by now you understand the consistency of arguments for the Trinity and against the I.C., which are both based on Tradition. This doesn’t make since to me. However, I’ve yet to understand why some tradition is more worthy than others, when neither is proven invalid in Scripture, and both have basis in Scripture.
 
:confused:

I’m sorry, but I’ve read this thread three times, and I’m not sure what you would like to discuss…

You want Protestants to explain their belief in the Trinity while explaining why they don’t believe in the Immaculate Conception?

Are you trying to get someone to come to the conclusion that neither the Trinity nor IC seems to have black and white evidence in scripture… so why accept one and not the other?
 
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Contarini:
I am happy to tell you why I don’t believe in the IC, but it might be better first for you to say why you think a Trinitarian Christian ought to believe in the IC (apart from the authority of the See of Rome defining the dogma).
OK, I’ll bite…
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BrianH:
The Immaculate Conception is not even hinted at in scripture except for one phrase…“full of grace” Luke 1:28 of which the meaning of is greatly debated(of course Catholics disagree thus the whole second Eve…Ark of Covenant argument). It is also a later developing Christian tradition based upon my reserach.
From the February 2001 issue of This Rock magazine:The phrase “full of grace” in Like 1:28 is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. This word represents the proper name of the person being addressed by the angel, and it therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates a perfection of grace that is both intensive and extensive. This means that the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit, and was not only as “full” or strong or complete as possible at any given time, but it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence to have been called “full of grace.”

Over the centuries, the Fathers and doctors of the Church spoke often about the fittingness of the privilege of Mary’s Immaculate Conception. The dogma is especially fitting when one examines the honor that was given to the Ark of the Covenant. It contained the manna (bread from heaven), stone tablets of the Ten Commandments (the word of God), and the staff of Aaron (an instrument of Israel’s redemption). If this box was created with such honor—to carry a stick, some bread, and stone tablets—how much more should Mary be made a worthy dwelling place for God himself? She is the new Ark of the Covenant because she carried the real bread from heaven, the Word of God, and the instrument of our redemption, Jesus’ body.

Some argue that the new ark is not Mary but the body of Jesus. Even if this were the case, it is worth noting that 1 Chronicles 15:14 records that the persons who bore the ark were to be sanctified. There would seem to be no sense in sanctifying men who carried a box and not sanctifying the womb who carried the Holy One himself. After all, wisdom will not dwell “in a body under debt of sin” (Wis. 1:4 [NAB]).
The Fathers of the Church spoke of this long before the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception was officially defined in 1854… probably around the same time they were busy developing the “fullness of the Trinitarian Doctrine that came out of later Ecumenical Councils and Creeds” if I had to guess 🙂
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Shibboleth:
The few Protestant denominations that have taken a hard stand against the Immaculate Conception do it on the basis that they feel if Mary was born as was born Eve without stain and ultimately lived a life without sin that would mean that she would not need a redeemer…
From the same February 2001 issue of This Rock magazine:The Church does not hesitate to profess that Mary needed a savior. It was by the grace of God—and not the work of Mary—that she was saved from sin in a most perfect manner. By what is called “preservative redemption,” Mary was preserved from sin at the time of her natural conception. John the Baptist was sanctified in the womb prior to his birth (Luke 1:15), and Mary was sanctified at her conception. It is no difficulty that Christ distributed the grace of Calvary some forty-five years or so before it happened, just as he bestows it upon us two thousand years after the fact. The Catechism of the Catholic Church states that this gift was given to Mary, making her “redeemed in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son” (492). She has more reason to call God her Savior than we do, because he saved her in an even more glorious manner!

God can “save” a person from a sin by forgiving them, or by providing them the grace never to fall into that particular sin. An ancient analogy is often useful to explain this: A person can be saved from a pit in two ways; one can fall into it and be brought out, or one can be caught before falling into it. Mankind is saved in the first manner, and Mary in the second. Both are saved from the pit of sin. If Jesus wished to save his mother from the stain of sin, what is to prevent him?
 
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Shibboleth:
…and the scriptures are clear that all need a redeemer.
Again, from the same February 2001 issue of This Rock magazine:Protestants and Catholics alike would agree that there are exceptions. For example, a child below the age of reason is not capable of committing actual sin. By definition he can’t sin, since sinning requires the ability to reason and the ability to intend to sin. This is indicated by Paul later in the epistle to the Romans when he speaks of the time when Jacob and Esau were unborn babies as a time when they “had done nothing either good or bad” (Rom. 9:11).

Jesus is another significant exception to the rule, having been exempt from actual and original sin (Heb. 4:15). If Paul’s statement in Romans 3 includes an exception for the new Adam (Jesus), one may argue that an exception for the new Eve (Mary) can also be made.
 
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Erich:
An ancient analogy is often useful to explain this: A person can be saved from a pit in two ways; one can fall into it and be brought out, or one can be caught before falling into it. Mankind is saved in the first manner, and Mary in the second. Both are saved from the pit of sin. If Jesus wished to save his mother from the stain of sin, what is to prevent him?
Recall, too, the words of the psalmist: The Lord “stooped toward me and heard my cry. He drew me out of the pit of destruction, out of the mud of the swamp; he set my feet upon a crag” (Psalm 40:2-4).
 
Well a few things…

I was just giving the Protestant POV and don’t necessarily agree.
Second, Jesus was the seed of the Holy Spirit not man and therefore there was not transmission of Ancestral Sin.
Third, most protestants view concupiscence as actual sin but they do not have a minimal distinction for salvation. All infants would need the Christ savior to cover them with an sheet of white snow. Luther went so far as to say all infants are born bad…
 
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Erich:
Again, from the same February 2001 issue of This Rock magazine:Protestants and Catholics alike would agree that there are exceptions. For example, a child below the age of reason is not capable of committing actual sin.
This is an odd argument. The IC is about original sin, not actual sin. I’m much more likely to accept the proposition that Mary never committed actual sin (and this proposition has a far deeper and wider basis in the tradition). Even then I’d tend to say that it’s a pious opinion–for doctrine I think we should be content with saying that she was extremely holy. I don’t think it’s appropriate to suppose that she ever committed mortal sin, for instance–I can fully accept (even as doctrine) that she was never in a state in which she lacked communion with God.

Edwin
 
From the December 1991 issue of This Rock magazine:We see a crucial statement in Genesis 3:15: “I will put enmity between you [Satan] and the woman, between your seed and her seed; he will crush your head, and you will strike at his heel.” This passage is especially significant in that it refers to the “seed of the woman,” a singular usage. The Bible, following normal biology, otherwise only refers to the seed of the man, the seed of the father, but never to the seed of the woman. Who is the woman mentioned here? The only possibility is Mary, the only woman to give birth to a child without the aid of a human father, a fact prophesied in Isaiah 7:14.

If Mary were not completely sinless this prophesy becomes untenable. Why is that? The passage points to Mary’s Immaculate Conception because it mentions a complete enmity between the woman and Satan. Such an enmity would have been impossible if Mary were tainted by sin, original or actual (see 2 Corinthians 6:14). This line of thinking rules out Eve as the woman, since she clearly was under the influence of Satan in Genesis 3.
And more on the whole “second Eve…Ark of Covenant” argument:In Exodus 20 Moses is given the Ten Commandments. In chapters 25 through 30 the Lord gives Moses a detailed plan for the construction of the ark, the special container which would carry the Commandments. The surprising thing is that five chapters later, staring in chapter 35 and continuing to chapter 40, Moses repeats word for word each of the details of the ark’s construction.

Why? It was a way of emphasizing how crucial it was for the Lord’s exact specifications to be met (Ex. 25:9, 39:42-43). God wanted the ark to be as perfect and unblemished as humanly possible so it would be worthy of the honor of bearing the written Word of God. How much more so would God want Mary, the ark of the new covenant, to be perfect and unblemished since she would carry within her womb the Word of God in flesh.

When the ark was completed, “the cloud covered the meeting tent and the glory of the Lord filled the dwelling. Moses could not enter the meeting tent, because the cloud settled down upon it and the glory of the Lord filled the dwelling” (Ex. 40:34-38). Compare this with the words of Gabriel to Mary in Luke 1:35.

There’s another striking foreshadowing of Mary as the new ark of the covenant in 2 Samuel 6. The Israelites had lost the ark in a battle with their enemies, the Philistines, and had recently recaptured it. King David sees the ark being brought to him and, in his joy and awe, says “Who am I that the ark of the Lord should come to me?” (1 Sam. 6:9).

Compare this with Elizabeth’s nearly identical words in Luke 1:43. Just as David leapt for joy before the ark when it was brought into Jerusalem (2 Sam. 6:14-16), so John the Baptist leapt for joy in Elizabeth’s womb when Mary, the ark of the new covenant, came into her presence (Luke 1:44). John’s leap was for precisely the same reason as David’s–not primarily because of the ark itself, but because of what the ark contained, the Word of God.

Another parallel may be found in 2 Samuel 6:10-12 where we read that David ordered the ark diverted up into the hill country of Judea to remain with the household of Obededom for three months. This parallels the three-month visit Mary made at Elizabeth’s home in the hill country of Judea (Luke 1:39-45, 65). While the ark remained with Obededom it “blessed his household.” This is an Old Testament way of saying the fertility of women, crops, and livestock was increased. Notice that God worked this same miracle for Elizabeth and Zachariah in their old age as a prelude to the greater miracle he would work in Mary.

The Mary/ark imagery appears again in Revelation 11:19 and 12:1-17, where she is called the mother of all “those who keep God’s commandments and bear witness to Jesus” (verse 17). The ark symbolism found in Luke 1 and Revelation 11 and 12 was not lost on the early Christians. They could see the parallels between the Old Testament’s description of the ark and the New Testament’s discussion of Mary’s role.

Granted, none of these verses “proves” Mary’s Immaculate Conception, but they all point to it. After all, the Bible nowhere says Mary committed any sin or languished under original sin. As far as explicit statements are concerned, the Bible is silent on most of the issue, yet all the biblical evidence supports the Catholic teaching.

A last thought. If you could have created your own mother, wouldn’t you have made her the most beautiful, virtuous, perfect woman possible? Jesus, being God, did create his own mother (Col. 1:16; Heb. 1:2), and he did just that–he created her immaculate and, in his mercy and generosity, kept her that way.
Hope these posts help in explaining why Catholics think Trinitarian Christians ought to believe in the IC apart from the authority of the See of Rome defining the dogma!
 
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ChiFaithful:
I don’t think you understand my point above
I misread “not both” as both not." My apologies.
To alleviate any distress, I think by now you understand the consistency of arguments for the Trinity and against the I.C., which are both based on Tradition. This doesn’t make since to me. However, I’ve yet to understand why some tradition is more worthy than others, when neither is proven invalid in Scripture, and both have basis in Scripture.
Because some tradition has a stronger basis in Scripture; is in less conflict with the apparent sense of Scripture; is more ancient and universal within the Tradition itself; and has stronger logical arguments in its favor.

All of these things are true of the Trinity as against the IC.

Edwin
 
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Shibboleth:
All infants would need the Christ savior to cover them with an sheet of white snow. Luther went so far as to say all infants are born bad…
But the sheet of white snow just covers them, it doesn’t cleanse them, right? Under the sheet, they would still be totally corrupt, would they not?

I could probably say more on this, but that would of course lead me to the doctrine of Purgatory, and ChiFaithful already asked us once to please stay on topic 🙂
 
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Contarini:
I misread “not both” as both not." My apologies.

Because some tradition has a stronger basis in Scripture; is in less conflict with the apparent sense of Scripture; is more ancient and universal within the Tradition itself; and has stronger logical arguments in its favor.

All of these things are true of the Trinity as against the IC.

Edwin
Please clarify your points, if possible:
  1. What conflict with the apparent sense of Scripture does the I.C. have? What conflict with the apparent sense of Scripture does the Trinity not have? What does “apparent sense” mean?
  2. Can you please provide evidence that the Trinity is more ancient and universal than the I.C? Why does this matter either way? I thought tradition didn’t matter to Protestants. Please explain.
  3. Why is the Trinity more logical than the I.C.?
 
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Erich:
But the sheet of white snow just covers them, it doesn’t cleanse them, right? Under the sheet, they would still be totally corrupt, would they not?

I could probably say more on this, but that would of course lead me to the doctrine of Purgatory, and ChiFaithful already asked us once to please stay on topic 🙂
I will just comment this real quick and then try not to stray in the future.

Exactly, the Lutherans do not believe that Sanctification is the means of our Justification. We are justified through Christ in acquittal. They do not see Justification as a process but a one time occurrence of the Elect at Baptism in which the wills of the Elect are bound.

Where the Catholics and Orthodox speak of Infused Grace and Theosis respectively the Lutherans speak of Forensic Justification.
 
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