Another thought about Mary's sinlessness

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SPOKENWORD:
Hi Malachi,thats two of us. 😃 God Bless
Yo, Spokes! “Mother of God” isn’t a “Catholic” (opposed to Protestant) doctrine; it is a basic doctrine of the Christian faith. None of the Reformers rejected it, as they all understood how it related to the Doctrine of God and the hypostatic union. Probably the easiest place to look would be a Catholic source, but the learned Presbyterian, R. C. Sproul, handles this subject masterfully – I don’t know if he has written anything on it.

As Casey Stengel used to say: You could look it up!
 
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oudave:
I have said that Mary like the rest of us did not remain sinnless. She may have only sinned once, but we know through scripture that Christ was the only one
No. Mary was concieved free from original sin. She was miraculously pre-baptized by God on order to recieve the salvific graces from Christ’s sacrifice in anticipation of His inevitable victory over sin that was to occur. In scripture, the Archangel Gabriel greets Mary in Greek: “Kaire Kecharitemene”, which means “Hail, Full of Grace” – How could Mary have possibly ever been called “Full of [the] Grace [of the Holy Spirit]” if she had ever sinned? Any stain of sin on her soul whatsoever would have made her less then full of grace. It would have meant that she had cooperated with Satan’s plan, and turned against God. The authors of scripture also refer to her as the New Ark of the Covenant – God’s most sacred and holy vessel which He dwelt in during the Old Testament – but now literally embodied by a young virgin woman who carried Him as a child. Mary was born without original sin. She is the “New Eve”, and thus she recieved absolutely nothing less than the exact same gift of freedom from sin that had first been given to Adam and Eve in the Garden. Could Mary have sinned? Yes. Adam and Eve could have also, and then they did. But Mary did not. She remained completely faithful to God, always conforming her own will to His, and positively responding to and accepting each and every single grace which He chose to give to her. She is the “woman” who God refered to in Genesis --the one who would be at war with the serpent. If Mary had sinned, she would in fact have been cooperating with Satan’s plans. She was the “woman” (a respectful term in that culture/society) who Christ spoke to at the foot of His cross. She is also the “woman” of Revalation, “clothed with the sun”, whom God protected from the jaws of the Dragon. And when the Dragon could not reach her, he instead made war upon all of her children – us. And at the end of her life, she was assumed body and soul into Heaven. Mary could have chosen to sin, but never did, and thus provides for us the best possible example of how to always follow God’s will for us and never turn against Him. Because it is possible, and we should learn from her example. 🙂
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oudave:
If Mary were sinnless she could have also been our savior…
No, because she was not God. :rolleyes:
And only God Himself could have taken on the full burden of sin for all mankind.
 
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Malachi4U:
Let’s see what the NIV says in {St.} Lk 2:7 “7and she gave birth to her firstborn, a son.”

Jesus is God? Catholic answer yes (and most other Christians too)!

Jesus born of Blessed ever virgin Mary? Bible answer Yes!

Spoken 0, Bible 1

God bless,
Hi Malachi,Thats not what my bible says;Luke2;7 And she brought forth her firstborn son. 😃 Who created God the Father? :confused: Whats the score now? 🙂 God Bless
 
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SPOKENWORD:
Hi Malachi,Thats not what my bible says;Luke2;7 And she brought forth her firstborn son. 😃 Who created God the Father? :confused: Whats the score now? 🙂 God Bless
C’mon, SW. You know perfectly well what the title Mother of God means in Catholic theology. Why play stupid when you aren’t fooling anyone?
 
Oh yea, DQ! Somebody was definitely paying attention in class! 👍

Just to clarify here, we are not saying that Mary did not need a savior, she herself said that she did! The point is that she was given the graces in anticipation of Christ’s salvific act. He hadn’t died yet, but as God is outside of time, He can (and did) apply the effects to anyone and whenever He wants. This grace, however, was not forced upon her. She had to accept it, which she certainly did. “Behold the handmaiden of the Lord, let it be done unto me according to your word.” That is perfect acceptance of God’s will, something we should all try to emulate.
 
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SPOKENWORD:
Who created God the Father? :confused:
You know very well that no one created God the Father. :rolleyes: For that matter, no one created God the Son. That’s why He’s God! However, Jesus’ body was created. That didn’t exist from all eternity. It didn’t just show up, either. It grew and developed in Mary’s womb the same way that we grew and developed in our mothers’ wombs. “And behold, you shall conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus.” Lk 1:31

Mary is indeed sinless. Dave mentioned that his mother sinned; so does mine. However, they are not the mothers of God. We did not get to choose our mother; God did. He created her, for goodness sake! He was able to design the woman who was to be his mother! You can bet that He wanted a perfect vessel to carry His Son.
 
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PhilNeri:
You know very well that no one created God the Father. :rolleyes: For that matter, no one created God the Son. That’s why He’s God! However, Jesus’ body was created.
And Jesus’ soul too.
 
Hi
I have a question for all who are following this thread, why do we need a savior?
I would say that it is because of sin, wouldn’t you?
If Mary needed a savior like we do, then it would have to be because of sin. If Mary needed a savior not because of sin, then what did Mary need a savior for? I mean if Christ died for our sins, what did he die for Mary for?
I am interested in all your takes on this.
In Him and Only Him, Dave.
 
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tuopaolo:
And Jesus’ soul too.
Well…kinda. His human nature was certainly created at that point in time, but I don’t think you can say that Jesus Christ had two souls. He had two natures in one divine soul. God has a soul too – but it’s so incredibly infinite and perfect that His soul is Him is God is existence is reality.
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oudave:
I mean if Christ died for our sins, what did he die for Mary for?
For her salvation. She can’t just get to heaven all by herself. If Christ had not died for Mary’s Salvation also, then His sacrifice on the cross would have been imperfect – Mary could never have received the anticipatory graces of Christ’s salvific act, would have thus been born into the world with original sin, and could therefore have never been the Ark of the New Covenant, the New Eve, and the Mother of God – and Jesus Christ would have never been able to be born to die for our sins in the first place. And that’s not a very good situation for us, obviously. :rolleyes:
 
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oudave:
Hi
I have a question for all who are following this thread, why do we need a savior?
I would say that it is because of sin, wouldn’t you?
If Mary needed a savior like we do, then it would have to be because of sin. If Mary needed a savior not because of sin, then what did Mary need a savior for? I mean if Christ died for our sins, what did he die for Mary for?
I am interested in all your takes on this.
In Him and Only Him, Dave.
I gave this answer above, but I’ll repost it here so you will not miss it:

There are two ways a person can be saved from something:
  1. He can be saved after the event has happened, such as a person who falls into a river can be saved.
  2. He can be saved by being kept from having the event happen, such as person being caught before he falls into a river.
Mary was saved in the second way–before she herself could have sinned. This was done only through the death of her Son, whose redemption also saved the people of the OT who were looking forward to their redemption, you’ll recall.

God was and is able to save anyone at any time as he pleases, and it pleased him to do so, in the manner I described above, in Mary’s case because she was to be the Mother of the Incarnate Son of God.
 
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oudave:
Hi
I have a question for all who are following this thread, why do we need a savior?
I would say that it is because of sin, wouldn’t you?
If Mary needed a savior like we do, then it would have to be because of sin. If Mary needed a savior not because of sin, then what did Mary need a savior for? I mean if Christ died for our sins, what did he die for Mary for?
I am interested in all your takes on this.
In Him and Only Him, Dave.
Since you believe no infant has sinned, do any of them need a savior? Do aborted babies need a savior?
 
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VociMike:
Since you believe no infant has sinned, do any of them need a savior? Do aborted babies need a savior?
Ah, good point, VM! Our friend Dave is limiting the concept of savior too much and denying the evidence of any person who has ever tried to bring up children in thinking there is no original sin.
 
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Della:
Ah, good point, VM! Our friend Dave is limiting the concept of savior too much and denying the evidence of any person who has ever tried to bring up children in thinking there is no original sin.
Hi Della,Everyone God created needs a Savior,including babies. Blame Adam for that. 😦 God Bless
 
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masterjedi747:
Well…kinda. His human nature was certainly created at that point in time
A true human nature has both a soul and a body.
, but I don’t think you can say that Jesus Christ had two souls.
He had one soul, his human soul.
He had two natures in one divine soul.
He had two natures in one divine person. Person is not the same thing as soul. Angels are persons but they do not have souls. And the Father and Holy Spirit also do not have souls.

The teaching of the Catholic Church is that Jesus Christ had (and has) a human soul. The Church says that to say otherwise is heresy.

CCC #470
Because “human nature was assumed, not absorbed”,97 in the mysterious union of the Incarnation, the Church was led over the course of centuries to confess the full reality of Christ’s human soul, with its operations of intellect and will, and of his human body. In parallel fashion, she had to recall on each occasion that Christ’s human nature belongs, as his own, to the divine person of the Son of God, who assumed it . . .

CCC #471
Apollinarius of Laodicaea asserted that in Christ the divine Word had replaced the soul or spirit. Against this error the Church confessed that the eternal Son also assumed a rational, human soul

CCC #472
This human soul that the Son of God assumed is endowed with a true human knowledge. . . .
 
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oudave:
Hi
I have a question for all who are following this thread, why do we need a savior?
I would say that it is because of sin, wouldn’t you?
If Mary needed a savior like we do, then it would have to be because of sin. If Mary needed a savior not because of sin, then what did Mary need a savior for? I mean if Christ died for our sins, what did he die for Mary for?
I am interested in all your takes on this.
In Him and Only Him, Dave.
I honestly think you skip all the posts and I don’t think you have read any of our responses. If you have, then you should know the answer because we have given it on several of the threads where you have argued this point.

If you don’t read the posts then you won’t even notice this post.

I would also like you to answer my last post too, if you are reading this.
 
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SPOKENWORD:
Hi Della,Everyone God created needs a Savior,including babies. Blame Adam for that. 😦 God Bless
You and I believe that, but Dave doesn’t. Maybe you should start a discussion with him about it?
 
How ironic.
Here we have 2 prot’s that can’t agree on the basic belief of original sin… A Catholic dogma
Sp-Word believes (correct me if wrong) all are born w/ Original sin. and that’s the fuller meaning of “All” have sinned. Thus he baptizes infants. Thus here he practices Catholic dogma.
Then we have OUDAVE who can’t reconcile “All” have sinned because he denies the need for infant baptism. He thinks “All” means only “actual” sins commited after the age of reason.
Originally Posted by oudave
…I have never read anything that says that Mary was born without original sin, as a matter of fact I didnt know anyone was born being a sinner. Where do you get this from? I would like to read it.
… Dave.
Notice how OUDAVE puts on the “twist” with the ACTIVE commital of sin: "being a sinner " vs the passive:
Rom 5:12 Wherefore as by one man sin entered into this world, and by sin death; and so death passed upon all men, in whom all have sinned.
There is no doubt that the sin of Adam passed on to all men passively. Any cemetary with an infant grave proves the point.

BUT OUDAVE effectively says “All” are born free of all sin. and REMAIN so until the age of reason…if it ever arrives. So, OUDAVE does not even baptize the mentally handicapped who never reach the age of reason. OUDAVE DOESN’T believe in original sin inheritance EXCEPT death and disease. But why stop there? He’ll drag up an OT verse. That is is only proof.

From all this prot. contradiction, we Catholics are supposed to be convinced of their ideas…BOTH FROM SOLA SCRIPTURA!
Yet, neither one of them can even give proof of the NT books without bowing to the Church of Rome…another irony.

Now:
**The angel tells Joseph:
Matt 1: **21 And she shall bring forth a son: and thou shalt call his name JESUS. For he shall save his people from their sins.
Code:
      Now it is clear from everyday life that one can receive after payment, OR one can receive with promise of future payment.
A home or car mortgage is the receipt now with promise of later payment.
This is exactly how OT repentent people were saved. …Later promise to pay in Christ.

The NT repentent people are saved after the payment.
Code:
      So, we know for certainty that there were at least 2 MODES of humanity being "saved" from their sins.


      The Catholic Bible and the Catholc Church who certified what books shall and shall not be considered "inspired" NT, infallibly so, also teaches a 3rd mode of being "saved from sin", BEFORE any NT Bible arrived in 27 books.
That 3rd mode is vanquishing original sin at the moment of conception.
First example:
Christ was conceived fully human. YET, original sin is prevented from being part of that conception.
Yet, Christ is a true flesh and blood descendent of another human.(Son of David). This being so, He would have, by His FULL human nature, received what His Mother had as we all do. And that would include (in Adam) Original sin. IF that were so, then Christ was born of a sinful woman. A no no.
Code:
      **One must SOMEWHERE break the chain of inheriting Original sin.
** The Catholic Church teaches, even before she certified the NT collection that the chain was broken at Mary’s conception. Thus** banishing ANY thought that Christ was involved with Original sin from the womb.
**
Code:
      Therefore, Christ was born in the sinless womb of a sinless woman. 


      Mary was therefore simply "saved" from sin by God vanquishing Original sin at her conception. This does not make her a goddess or any other "fundy" diatribe. It simply means that the New Adam was conceived in the womb of a New (sinless) Eve (meaning mother of all).. But unlike Eve, she was "saved" from what she deserved by a promise of future payment on the Cross. She also received all the undeserved gifts of the first EVE, ie freedom from defect, disease, from decay to "dust" etc.
 
I think it would be more truthful (as in accurate) to say that original sin was excluded at her conception since “vanquished” seems to me to imply that it was there and then was removed … but I’m not an English teacher 🙂
 
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