Many have done so. Among the more dubious arguments White has made, I think this is one of the top-3:
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James White was ‘correcting’ Catholic Steve Ray’s claims on Sola Scriptura, but White ended up saying something very devastating to Sola Scriptura (
here):
White: The main element of [Catholic apologist] Mr. Ray’s misrepresentation of sola scriptura can be seen in just this: the doctrine speaks of a rule of faith that
exists. What do I mean by this? One will search high and low for any reference in any standard Protestant confession of faith that says, “There has never been a time when God’s Word was proclaimed and transmitted orally.”
You will never find anyone saying, "During times of enscripturation—that is, when new revelation was being given—sola scriptura was operational." Protestants do not assert that
sola scriptura is a valid concept during times of revelation. How could it be, since the rule of faith to which it points was at that very time coming into being? One must have an
existing rule of faith to say it is “sufficient.” It is a canard to point to times of revelation and say, “See, sola scriptura doesn’t work there!” Of course it doesn’t. Who said it did? As many Catholics have noted,
James White has effectively conceded Sola Scriptura (especially via 2 Timothy 3:16f) is false - the very doctrine he strongly defends. This is because texts like 2 Timothy 3:16f applied during a “time of enscripturation,” it couldn’t have been teaching SS without falling into the fallacy of anachronism (that is, reading back into a text a historically impossible detail).