Anything in the OT that bans polygamy?

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Benadam said:
That has been my stated position from start. That is what my example demonstrated. The example I introduced when I entered the thread.

I won’t be able to respond untill later.
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So if it is not a sin, then it is moral. God did not simply allow it, but He acted on it when He wanted a man to love TWO women. God would only act on what he approves, what he thinks is morally good.
 
I believe the issue for you is philosophic not Biblical.
You seem to hold to only two possible views by God on such matters.
That is polygamy, or any such matter, is either always wrong and therefore personally sinful OR its wholly acceptable and allowed by God.

In other words you are unable to distinguish between three possible scenarios: Wrong and not allowed by God, not desired by God but tolerated for a good reason, acceptable and allowed.

Lethal self defence seems one example of the middle ground.
God holds murder always wrong but tolerates killing for a good reason.

Polygamy is more like killing than murder.
God tolerated polygamy for a time because there was good reason to do so. That doesnt make it acceptable alltime and everywhere.
 
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BlackFriar said:
Polygamy is more like killing than murder.

God tolerated polygamy for a time because there was good reason to do so. That doesnt make it acceptable alltime and everywhere.
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To “tolerate” usually implies sitting back and watching, just like Christians can tolerate a “gay” person. But God acted, and his actions and wants involved trying to get a man to love two women and ensuring he gets TWO women pregnant.
 
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It may be condemned in the NT, but most certainly was practiced by Jews during that time. YouTube “Who was Babatha?” By Dr Henry Abramson.
 
Only moral if the ideal form of marriage is impossible…like if there were enough women who would not get a chance to marry…because there are to few men… the scandal to the women is an evil that would be measured against the scandal of polygamy…polygamy could be a good …which is moral
 
Would have Rachel and Leah have the chance to marry some other guy if Jacob had not come around?
 
AgnosticBoy said:
To “tolerate” usually implies sitting back and watching, just like Christians can tolerate a “gay” person. But God acted, and his actions and wants involved trying to get a man to love two women and ensuring he gets TWO women pregnant.
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If it was as you say, there would have to be some indication in the story that God acted to make polygamy happen. There is no indication as you admit. Acts of God within the marriage can’t be attributed to approval of polygamy. Jacob permitted polygamy to have Rachel. I don’t see much in this story about God approving or disproving polygamy. I see a lot of reasons why polygamy is not an ideal form of marriage. That’s really it.

It’s a valid form of marriage. But not what God wants unless the ideal form is not available.
AgnosticBoy said:
But God acted, and his actions and wants involved trying to get a man to love two women and ensuring he gets TWO women pregnant.
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God wanting both wives to be loved isn’t making a statement of the good of polygamy but the good it lacks
 
I’m wondering now, why do we even think God tolerated polygamy? I mean is it just because it was something that happened in the patriarchs lives?Why do we believe God’s morals are revealed by their morals
 
Benadam said:
I’m wondering now, why do we even think God tolerated polygamy?
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Um, because:
(a) it happened as a matter of course in the old days and is even recorded as such in the OT - though temple/priest editors (or Moses) did their best to downplay this practise which they clearly didn’t like.
(b) Also because its against the secondary principles of natural law but not the primary principles as known by right reason. This is the medieval position and is an acceptable Catholic one.
(c) And because Jesus himself counselled otherwise that it was not the original plan in Eden. However in a Fallen world, like private property and even divorce, it was seen as the best of a bad lot in certain difficult situations.
Why do we believe God’s morals are revealed by their morals?
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You mean by the example of the Patriachs?

Well I don’t believe that’s the case. God’s ever present desires for us are revealed more clearly over 100s of years and is still ongoing.
Then we have to balance that high ideal for the spiritually mature against what the majority of less than spiritually mature fallen men are capable of here and now in a given age in a given culture.

Thus, in certain circumstances, those things (like polygamy) that are not inherently against the primary natural law values of God, may be tolerated without sin in the agents nor contradiction in God.
 
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It doesn’t have to be. I understand what you wrote, and I disagreed with you. You have no evidence or reference to support your view that polygamy was tolerated for a certain time or for a temporary reason. Polygamy was practiced for MULTIPLE reasons and not just one - it’s moral, it boosts the population during war, for property rights, the Levirate Law, lust, hoarding, love, etc.

Your view is pure speculation. Meanwhile, I have evidence for my views which shows God did not simply tolerate, but also wanted polygamous acts.
 
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Benadam said:
Only moral if the ideal form of marriage is impossible
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The ideal form of marriage is a CHOICE, so how could it never be possible? No one forced Jacob to marry TWO women and besides that there are marriage annulments. The catholic Church believes this as well which is why they don’t accept new converts that are polygamists without wanting break up the marriage. What you’re saying makes no sense. It only makes sense for people to have to WATER DOWN the rules to make an EXCUSE for an action.

Besides that, you have no evidence that polygamy is “tolerated” under certain circumstances. Pure speculation.
 
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BlackFriar said:
© And because Jesus himself counselled otherwise that it was not the original plan in Eden. However in a Fallen world, like private property and even divorce, it was seen as the best of a bad lot in certain difficult situations.
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Polygamy not being “ideal” is relative, and I say this because polygamy can be practiced in different ways. The way polygamy was practiced in the Bible was in a system of ARRANGED marriages, with women being treated like chattel. If you fast forward to 21st CENTURY polygamy, you’ll see that your claim of not being ideal is a bit outdated because there are examples of adult consensual polygamy, even same-sex informal polygamy.
 
???
You clearly have no feel for what was said.
 
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If you have a rebuttal to make, then do so with logic and evidence. Be specific!
 
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Evidence that God wanted polygamy is found before it happened. No evidence that God wanted polygamy.
 
We already covered this. Forget the word polygamy…its not in the Bible anyways. My claim will just be that its moral to love and impregnate multiple wives based on God wanting that from Jacob. It’s indisputable really!
 
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You didn’t rebut the claim with evidence that proves it wrong. Or any evidence at all.
 
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