Are Catholics Born Again?

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OMG…He is one of those…Pope’s the Anti-christ…We worship Mary and and Saints…etc…All we can do is pray for him. :gopray2:
no poking fun?

I mean, I do understand that Jack Chick’s cartoons are quite convincing. He almost had me.

Well if only he had a secret Papal Decoder ring he’d understand.

wait, that’s the mark of the beast

nevermind
 
You mean there really is a secret Papal decoder ring?!!!

Just kidding. I must say your recent posts have been entertaining to say the least. I got quite a laugh from your humor.

It really does seem like we are getting nowhere with this debate. I feel like I have explicated the truth as I see it very clearly, and I am struggling now, not with justifying my statements, but clarifying them to the point they can be understood.

Let’s start over…

The Catholic Church teaches (according to the Council of Trent) that salvatioin occurs when a person is…
  1. Aroused by Grace - receiving faith by hearing.
  2. Moved freely toward God.
  3. Turning themselves from fear of divine justice.
  4. Raised to hope - they begin to love God.
  5. Moved against sin by a detestation of it.
  6. Repentance of that sin (before baptism)
  7. Resolved to receive baptism.
  8. Justification
I have no problem whatsoever with that order of events occuring in person’s heart during salvation. My problem with the Catholic Church’s soteirology is based on just WHEN justification occurs.

Rather that submitting to the teaching that justification occurs after baptism. I am submitting to you, that justification occurs at the same time as #2 and #3 (which occur simultaneously).

My reasoning is this… We both agree that, Sinful man who is at enmity with God, has no reason for loving God, except he had received love from God to begin with? That is why God sent His Son to die in our place; becuase He loved us (John 3:16). Hence… point #1 by the Council of Trent.

After receiving faith by previously hearing the Word of God, that person by an act of his or her free will moves toward God while turning from fear of divine judgement (a simultaneous event).

At that exact moment, when that person wills to move toward God, he makes a conscious assertion that to move toward God will save him from divine judgement. Otherwise it would be illogical to move toward Him. This is (biblically) where salvation occurs.

Proof:

According to the Council of Trent, the next events in the order are:
*That person is raised to hope, and begins to love God.

Question #1 - Why would that person love God, if there were no response by God when that person drew nigh to Him? (James 4:8)

*That person is moved against sin by destestation.

Question #2 - How could that person detest sin except God’s position toward sin be revealed to that person? And what cause would that person have to desire the same perspective as God regarding sin, except there already be a union between that person and God? That union being the imputation of righteousness. (Romans 4:22-24)

*Repentance of that sin (before baptism)

Question #3 - Since this type of repentance is the action of “turning away” from sin, what has empowered that person to “repent” if he has not already received the Holy Spirit? Rather than introducing a lengthy debate over types of repentance again, let us look at Romans 7 again:
Rom 7:12 Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good.
Rom 7:13 Was then that which is good made death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful.
Paul here is relaying his experience with the law as a sinful man. Since we all agree that Jesus Christ is the “Incarnate Word”, the law of God is equivalent to the commandments of God, and the Word of God. Jesus is the incarnation of the Law! And He died on the cross as the despised commandment (BTW think about what love He had for us to do that)

Therefore, since Jesus had already gone to sit at the right hand of the Father… how did Paul recieve the revelation of the law of truth? By the law that was written on the tables of his heart (Jer. 31:33)
2Co 3:3 Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart.
Continued in the next post

John
www.gideonsword.net
 
Continued

If Paul was reacting to the law written on the tables of his heart, and this law is written with the Spirit of the living God (according to 2 Cor. 3:3) then apparently Paul had the indwelling Spirit of God, as did the disciples at Corinth.
Rom 7:22 For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:
And the indwelling Spirit of God (which is the law written in our hearts) is necessary to induce repentance of sin.

Since it is necessary to be indwelt by the Holy Spirit to be aware of the law (inwardly), then by Paul’s own testimony and the God inspired scripture of Romans chapter 7, Paul was saved before he found himself warring with his flesh.
And how do we know this for sure? Because Paul was indwelt with the Holy Spirit.
Rom 8:9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
Rom 8:16 The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God:
1Co 3:16 Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?
With ALL of that in mind… we now come to the last point given by the Council of Trent that occurs before salvation…

*Resolution to receive Baptism

Question #4 - If Baptism is a command by God to be executed, what right does an unsaved person have to obey the command.

Since Jesus Christ… who was the incarnate law (Word), died as that incarnate law; to obey the law now would be to circumvent Christ as obedience to God. The only commandment left for an unsaved person is to unite with Christ. And the only commandment left for a saved person is obedience to Christ who dwells in us, written on the tables of our heart with the Spirit of God.

If the Catholic Church is then teaching that a commandment, such as baptism, is necessary for salvation; then they have essentially declared obedience to the law a saving act. Which is not grace at all, but a circumvention of the grace of God, and a feeble attempt to pacify divine justice.

Baptism in the context of satisfying a command IS an act of repentance.
Rom 7:6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and **not in the oldness of the letter. **
So my previous statement stands…
The Catholic Church has told you that if you are baptized, you have persuaded God to view you as sanctified and justified
Only one of us can be right about salvation… therefore, one of us has been deceived and made to believe we have been indwelt with the Holy Spirit and experience a personal relationship with Christ.

I know him… do you?

John
www.gideonsword.net
 
OK. So now I’m really confused. Not only do you contradict Scripture and historical Christianity, but now you seem to be contradicting yourself. Is or is not repentance granted by God? It seems that whatever the Church says, you are willing to contradict, even if in so doing, you contradict yourself.

A few posts up, you’re all miffed about how the Church teaches that we must “muster up” our own conversion. “Heresy!!! God grants our repentance!” When it is casually pointed out to you that the Church teaches that repentance is “first of all a work of the grace of God”, now it’s: “Heresy!!! God would never impose his will on us!” OK.

Uh…newsflash. The Catholic Church is the last Church to ever declare that God would ever impose anything on us. Conversion/repentance is described are being “first” a work of grace. But of course, where there’s a first, there’s also a second. And that second is us cooperating with the grace that God gives. Which would be the part about us “looking upon him whom our sins have pierced.”
Ah, but Bibleapologist doesn’t believe in Prevenient Grace, obviously. Which leaves him in exactly the predicament that you describe–He is forced (a la Alice in Wonderland) to believe in six impossible things before breakfast.
Hence, the contradiction…
 
So my previous statement stands…
John
www.gideonsword.net
Well, but that’s the problem. Your previous statements are a terrible lot of nonsense that have nothing whatsoever to do with Catholic teaching.
I do realize that you are totally caught up with Boettner, Chick, & Co. , but you need to know that said Boettner was a liar, a fool, and a complete con man, who threw together all that codswallop out of whole cloth, & presented it as factual…When the truth is, it doesn’t even make any sense!! (We quite regularly have a lot of fun with his “accusation” that the Catholic Church invented wax candles; what a dreadful thing!! No more:rolleyes: falling over your own feet in the darkness! No more stench of :eek:burning whale blubber! Shocking!!:rotfl:Naughty, naughty!! Off with their heads!!!)

Why not find out what other people really believe, before making a cake of yourself in front of the whole world? (Other than, I mean, the :cool: “Gospel According to:whacky: Lorraine Boettner”…)
 
Has anyone actually looked at BA’s website… I did and it completely destroyed any and all credibility he may have had with me. Here are some great highlights of what I found while one there:
The Catholic Institution decided in 431 AD in the council of Ephesus that Mary should be considered “Mother” of God, and that she actually possesses the same saving power as Jesus Himself.
The truth is, by studying the Catholic teaching, it doesn’t take long to find out that **Catholics esteem Mary higher than Jesus. **They believe that Jesus is second person of the trinity, therefore Jesus is God, but they believe Mary holds a higher place than Jesus.
It is not actually Mary they are worshipping, it is a pagan God.
Wow, just wow.
 
Has anyone actually looked at BA’s website… I did and it completely destroyed any and all credibility he may have had with me. Here are some great highlights of what I found while one there:

Wow, just wow.
Yeah, I did…That’s how I found out he is proclaiming the ravings of L Boettner as truth…
Even over here in the Methodist Amen Corner, we know that particular loony for being…well, loony.
 
I much prefer Protestants who don’t copy and paste their list of straw-men arguments and false dates/proclamations from Tim Lahey and Jack ChickOh yeah… they don’t check their own sources to see if they are correct. Part of that is that to anti-Catholics, the only history that they know is the little bit that happens to them (since reading about it would entail study from sources that might not be Bible based!:eek: ) and then they try to pass off their own propaganda as fact. As a result they miss it when someone comes along who bothered to do their own homework (Like this man here!) and just blows them all outta the water. IMO liars and intellectually lazy people should never try to engage in apologetics because it makes their ignorance glow in the dark like a radioactive accident.

😃 Contray to the popular a-C propaganda…Catholics do indeed bring a brain to their religion and think for themselves.
[SIGN]Pax Domini sit semper vobiscum.[/SIGN]
 
  1. Aroused by Grace - receiving faith by hearing.
  2. Moved freely toward God.
  3. Turning themselves from fear of divine justice.
  4. Raised to hope - they begin to love God.
  5. Moved against sin by a detestation of it.
  6. Repentance of that sin (before baptism)
  7. Resolved to receive baptism.
  8. Justification
Thank you for acknowledging that.
Rather that submitting to the teaching that justification occurs after baptism. I am submitting to you, that justification occurs at the same time as #2 and #3 (which occur simultaneously).
I understand your point here. Please understand this. In the current context of our conversation, we do not teach that justification occurs after baptism. We teach that it occurs in baptism. (Outside of the context of our immediate discussion, Catholics believe that justification and sanctification increase throughout our lives…what Protestants typically limit to sanctification…but that is neither here nor there for our purposes, which, I recall, is centered on being “born again”).
My reasoning is this… We both agree that, Sinful man who is at enmity with God, has no reason for loving God, except he had received love from God to begin with? That is why God sent His Son to die in our place; becuase He loved us (John 3:16). Hence… point #1 by the Council of Trent.
After receiving faith by previously hearing the Word of God, that person by an act of his or her free will moves toward God while turning from fear of divine judgement (a simultaneous event).
At that exact moment, when that person wills to move toward God, he makes a conscious assertion that to move toward God will save him from divine judgement. Otherwise it would be illogical to move toward Him. This is (biblically) where salvation occurs.
I understand what you are saying. Your claim that this is biblically where salvation occurs, though, is not true. All I need to do is pull out Romans 13:11:
salvation is nearer to us now than when we first believed
St. Paul clearly does not view salvation through the lens of it being a one-time event. Period. So it cannot be limited to a specific “now”.
According to the Council of Trent, the next events in the order are:
*That person is raised to hope, and begins to love God.
Question #1 - Why would that person love God, if there were no response by God when that person drew nigh to Him? (James 4:8)
I’m affraid that, though I get what you’re saying, it is hardly proof in the least. The person is raised to hope and loves God because he has received faith through hearing and recognizes God for who he is, Love Himself.
*That person is moved against sin by destestation.
Question #2 - How could that person detest sin except God’s position toward sin be revealed to that person? And what cause would that person have to desire the same perspective as God regarding sin, except there already be a union between that person and God? That union being the imputation of righteousness. (Romans 4:22-24)
It’s true that God’s position towards sin has been revealed to that person, by hearing in #1. That in no way necessitates a justification. And what cause? Perhaps a recognition that one does recognize that he has not the same perspective as God and doesn’t have a union with him.
*Repentance of that sin (before baptism)
Question #3 - Since this type of repentance is the action of “turning away” from sin, what has empowered that person to “repent” if he has not already received the Holy Spirit? Rather than introducing a lengthy debate over types of repentance again, let us look at Romans 7 again:
As the Council states, grace precedes everything. God’s grace has empowered the free repentance of the individual. But so far, the HS has not been infused into the person.
 
Omigosh!! It’s the :yawn: Boettner list!!!:yawn: How often have we all heard this:yawn: one??:yawn:
The funny thing about this list, even if it weren’t such a joke, is that it would prove what the rest of the non-tinfoil-hat-wearing world knows; the Catholic Church is older than the protestant whose main dogmas of bible alone/faith alone were unheard of before the reformation (and they’re unscriptural but I guess that’s another thread)
 
And the indwelling Spirit of God (which is the law written in our hearts) is necessary to induce repentance of sin.
You’re gonna have to show me where the bible says the indwelling of the Spirit is necessary for repentance. I can show you where it says grace is necessary, but not the indwelling.
Since it is necessary to be indwelt by the Holy Spirit to be aware of the law (inwardly), then by Paul’s own testimony and the God inspired scripture of Romans chapter 7, Paul was saved before he found himself warring with his flesh.
And how do we know this for sure? Because Paul was indwelt with the Holy Spirit.
He certainly was justified before he was warring with his flesh. Otherwise how would he fight? But that doesn’t make your case. He could just as easily have been justified in baptism.
With ALL of that in mind… we now come to the last point given by the Council of Trent that occurs before salvation…
*Resolution to receive Baptism
Question #4 - If Baptism is a command by God to be executed, what right does an unsaved person have to obey the command.
Every person, saved or unsaved, not only has the right, but the duty to obey God’s commands.
Since Jesus Christ… who was the incarnate law (Word), died as that incarnate law; to obey the law now would be to circumvent Christ as obedience to God.
Uh no, the only means of obedience to the Law is union with Christ. But obey the law we must.
The only commandment left for an unsaved person is to unite with Christ. And the only commandment left for a saved person is obedience to Christ who dwells in us, written on the tables of our heart with the Spirit of God.
Uh no. The entire law (and by the way, I do not mean the Mosaic Law) is necessary for all humans, and that does indeed include baptism.
If the Catholic Church is then teaching that a commandment, such as baptism, is necessary for salvation; then they have essentially declared obedience to the law a saving act. Which is not grace at all, but a circumvention of the grace of God, and a feeble attempt to pacify divine justice.
Uh, no. Obedience to God is a saving act. God has willed that justification should come to us through baptism. I obey him.
Only one of us can be right about salvation… therefore, one of us has been deceived and made to believe we have been indwelt with the Holy Spirit and experience a personal relationship with Christ.
Well, it’s true that one of us is right. But I am less convinced that God is bound by your stick diagrams for the salvation of the world.

But this is, thank you for providing the opportunity, a good place to end this dance. It is consuming too much of my time.

God bless you, and may you come to know Jesus Christ in the fullness of truth.
 
Yes, Catholics are born again. Jesus’ clear instruction was unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Spirit he shall not have eternal life. Catholics are born again of water and the Holy Spirit in the sacraments–intimate, personal encounters with Christ present–in the sacraments of Baptism and Confirmation. Through those sacraments the action of Christ through the minister of the sacrament and the powers with which Christ endowed His Church, He accomplishes by the merits of his life, passion, death and resurrection, all that he intends and demands for our salvation.

All the sacraments derive their power, merit and grace from the Eucharist which is the sacramental re-presentation of the saving sacrifice of Calvary, therefore they draw upon the full weight of merit and grace of that sacrifice and hence are salvific.
 
It really does seem like we are getting nowhere with this debate. I feel like I have explicated the truth as I see it very clearly, and I am struggling now, not with justifying my statements, but clarifying them to the point they can be understood.
I don’t think the problem here is that we’re not understanding your statements. Many of us are former Protestants, some of us from the very form of Protestantism that you now practice. We understand your statements. The simple fact is that your statements have very little historical or biblical warrant, if any at all. Your argument amounts to, “Accept my teachings because I’m sent by God to interpret the Bible correctly for you.”
Rather that submitting to the teaching that justification occurs after baptism. I am submitting to you, that justification occurs at the same time as #2 and #3 (which occur simultaneously).
My reasoning is this…
Let me first say here that I see a bit inconsistency between the argument you’re about to make (which is sophistic, to say the least) and your signature, wihch says “Intellectualism is overrated.” If your intention is to prove that statement by example, bravo; but if it’s to prove your point above, you’ll have to make a stronger argument to get anyone to deny 2,000 years of historical Christianity.
At that exact moment, when that person wills to move toward God, he makes a conscious assertion that to move toward God will save him from divine judgement. Otherwise it would be illogical to move toward Him. This is (biblically) where salvation occurs.
Biblically, salvation occurs in the past (we are saved), in the present (we are being saved), and in the future (we will be saved). You have no biblical warrant for saying absolutely that one particular point is the point at which “salvation occurs.” Perhaps your claim is that this is the point at which salvation begins, a point with which I can agree, with one condition: that you recognize that at this point, no internal, organic change has happened to the human: he is still in his sins, he is still not indwelt by the Holy Spirit. I condition my agreement by these points because the Bible clearly states that baptism is the point at which a person’s sins are washed away, the point at which the Holy Spirit first indwells a person.

I can make many biblical arguments and logical arguments for this claim, but I’ll limit myself to just a few.
  1. When, on the day of Pentecost, the crowd Peter preached to was "cut to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the apostles, ‘Brethren, what shall we do?’ " they clearly made a choice to turn themselves for fear of divine justice, which list as the point at which they were justified, if I understand you correctly. But Peter’s response disagrees: he says, “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins.” Despite turning toward God, they were still in their sins, and Peter insisted that they must be baptized for their sins to be forgiven.
  2. Likewise, during the conversion of Saul, he fasted for three days, neither eating nor drinking (a very severe fast). He had already called Jesus his “Lord” on the road to Damascus. And yet after Ananias met him and restored his sight, he told Paul, “And now why do you wait? Rise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on his name.” Paul, despite his conversion experience, still needed to be baptized to be justified, to wash away his sins.
  3. Noah’s ark, which we know to be a type (precursor that prefigures, if you’re not accustomed to the term) of baptism, only saved those who were in it when the rain started. It doesn’t matter how much a person turned mentally or emotionally away from his sin; God designated that the ark was the method by which men would be saved from the flood, and those who were not in the ark were destroyed. In similar manner, God has designated that baptism is the means by which He would dispense the grace of His justification, the grace of initial purification from sins. Neither we nor the Catholic Church has any warrant to alter this design of God’s.
To Be Continued…
 
Now let’s continue with your “proof”:
Paul here is relaying his experience with the law as a sinful man. Since we all agree that Jesus Christ is the “Incarnate Word”, the law of God is equivalent to the commandments of God, and the Word of God.
Here’s your first fallacy. The Law of God is not equivalent to the Word of God, either written, spoken, or in the form of the Word Incarnate, Jesus Christ. Much of the Bible is not the Law. Jesus cannot accurately be described as “the incarnation of the Law.”
If Paul was reacting to the law written on the tables of his heart, and this law is written with the Spirit of the living God (according to 2 Cor. 3:3) then apparently Paul had the indwelling Spirit of God, as did the disciples at Corinth.
Another fallacy: you presume that the Spirit of God cannot work in men whom He hasn’t indwelt. What biblical or logical warrant do you have for such a claim?
Since Jesus Christ… who was the incarnate law (Word), died as that incarnate law; to obey the law now would be to circumvent Christ as obedience to God.
And this is just ridiculous. “If you love me, keep my commandments.” Obedience to God is never a circumvention of Christ. In fact, obedience to God is itself enabled by Christ’s sacrifice and is an expression of the grace received from Christ.
The only commandment left for an unsaved person is to unite with Christ.
Certainly not. Even the gentiles, who don’t by nature have the law, show a law written on their hearts.
If the Catholic Church is then teaching that a commandment, such as baptism, is necessary for salvation; then they have essentially declared obedience to the law a saving act. Which is not grace at all, but a circumvention of the grace of God, and a feeble attempt to pacify divine justice.
Not at all. The Catholic teaching that baptism is ordinarily necessary for salvation is simply a reaffirmation of the biblical and apostlic understanding baptism is the means by which God dispenses the grace of justification to a person. You don’t seem to understand that God can dispense His grace however He chooses. In the Bible we see Him using matter to dispense grace: the touching of Jesus’ cloak, Peter’s shadow, Paul’s handkerchief, the laying on of hands, etc. Baptism is simply God’s chosen ordinary method for dispensing the grace of justification.

Jeremy
 
Let’s start over…

The Catholic Church teaches (according to the Council of Trent) that salvatioin occurs when a person is…
  1. Aroused by Grace - receiving faith by hearing.
  2. Moved freely toward God.
  3. Turning themselves from fear of divine justice.
  4. Raised to hope - they begin to love God.
  5. Moved against sin by a detestation of it.
  6. Repentance of that sin (before baptism)
  7. Resolved to receive baptism.
  8. Justification
I have no problem whatsoever with that order of events occuring in person’s heart during salvation. My problem with the Catholic Church’s soteirology is based on just WHEN justification occurs.

Rather that submitting to the teaching that justification occurs after baptism. I am submitting to you, that justification occurs at the same time as #2 and #3 (which occur simultaneously).
That’s your big gripe? WHEN it happens? This certainly seems like a departure from the OP of “ARE Catholics born again”? A departure hardly worth the effort, BTW. Nonetheless, you have repeatedly been shown Scripture which links the ACTUAL “washing away of sins” through Baptism. To believe what you are claiming above is to discredit Scripture among other things. Lets not forget Titus 3:5-8 “…he saved us through the bath of rebirth and renewal by the holy spirit (this parallels John 3:5 perfectly and confirms that “born of water” is identical to “the bath of rebirth” which is baptism), whom he richly poured out on us through Jesus Christ our Savior, so that we might be justified by his grace and become heirs in hope of eternal life” This language confirms Catholic theology and renders your interpretations lacking IMHO.
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bibleapologist:
After receiving faith by previously hearing the Word of God, that person by an act of his or her free will moves toward God while turning from fear of divine judgement (a simultaneous event).
Too many holes. “receiving faith by hearing the Word” seems to exclude God’s Grace as the precursor to being disposed to hear that Word. I have to reject your characterization because it is poorly worded and unclear. “…free will moves toward God” again seems to obviate God’s Grace and must be rejected.
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bibleapologist:
At that exact moment, when that person wills to move toward God, he makes a conscious assertion that to move toward God will save him from divine judgement. Otherwise it would be illogical to move toward Him. This is (biblically) where salvation occurs.
Sorry, but you are excluding the necessary obedience which God has required “repent AND be baptized, everyone of you for the forgiveness of your sins…” Baptism is an act of faith and God has not only required us to obey, but he has also shown us its necessity by being baptized himself. The bath of rebirth and renewal by the holy spirit is when it occurs, but it is not instantaneous, complete and permanent - see above. There are exceptions if one can not be baptized by water, but such are exceptions and not the rule.

Blessings to you and your family
 
John_Henry

Thank you for the charitable manner in which you have debated. It is refreshing to engage in debate with someone of such self-control over a potentially personal subject such as the state of ones salvation.

I appreciate your character, and your need to tend to other responsibilities. I too will give my closing arguments, and consider this debate “finished”… although left without a concession.

You stated in your post:
Please understand this. In the current context of our conversation, we do not teach that justification occurs after baptism. We teach that it occurs in baptism. (Outside of the context of our immediate discussion, Catholics believe that justification and sanctification increase throughout our lives…what Protestants typically limit to sanctification
Point taken regarding the Catholic belief of justification and when it occurs…

Quickly I will address sanctification. The Holy Spirit, in the Old Testament was illustrated by oil. When someone was “set apart”, or ordained for particlar service they were anointed by oil.

When a person receives the Holy Spirit at the moment of salvation, they are already sanctifed… it is a one time event. I don’t agree with the charismatic understanding of “anointing”, that it is a “feeling” of the presence of God. When one is saved and receives the Holy Spirit, they have been sanctified as God’s child, and consecrated for a particlar service to God… whether they are aware of it or not.

You quoted Romans 13:11…
now is our salvation nearer to us now than when we first believed
In the context that this scripture was written; Paul was encouraging the saints in Rome to be busy about the Lord’s work, because “the night is far spent”, and “the day is at hand”… meaning the day of our salvation… not the salvation of which we have previously experienced, but the day of our salvation.

John Gill elucidates this nicely…
by which is meant, not temporal salvation… but a spiritual and eternal salvation: not Christ the author of it, who was come to effect it; nor that itself, as obtained, which was now done, finished, and completed; nor the application of it to their souls, which also had been made; but the consummate enjoyment of it in heaven, the salvation of their souls at death, and both of soul and body at the resurrection; consisting in a freedom from every evil, and in a full possession of all that is good and glorious: this is brought nearer to the saints, to their sight and view, as their faith grows and increases; and they are nearer the enjoyment of that than when they first believed;
You also stated…
You’re gonna have to show me where the bible says the indwelling of the Spirit is necessary for repentance. I can show you where it says grace is necessary, but not the indwelling.
Romans chapter 7 is a testimony by Paul about the repentance that he continually enacts in his own flesh. The repentance that necessitates salvation (and what I understand the Council of Trent to have realized in point #3), is a repentance of a mental state manifested in a concession to God’s design for salvation… Hence, there are two types of repentance which is why I asked that Turtullian’s work on repentance be read.

Continued on the next post
 
Continued

You also stated…
He certainly was justified before he was warring with his flesh. Otherwise how would he fight? But that doesn’t make your case. He could just as easily have been justified in baptism.
Thank you for acknowleding that. You are right, he could just as easily been justified in baptism, if we were only considering Romans 7 alone. But the whole issue is whether or not justification can actually occur at baptism. Again, my point is that it cannot… based on which type of repentance is necessary for justifcation… A repentance of the will (or concession to God’s design for salvation); or repentance of sin (or a physical act of changing one’s behavior to put away sin).

To change behavior patterns before one is saved, is no different than what the Pharisees were judged for…
Mat 23:23 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of mint and anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier [matters] of the law, judgment, mercy, and faith: these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone.
They thought by obeying the commands of God, there were in “right standing” (or justified) with God. But they obviously were not.

The Apostle Paul, when he saw Peter testifying by his actions that his own personal justification came by obedience to the law, rebuked Peter…
Gal 2:11 But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed.
Gal 2:12 For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision.
Gal 2:13 And the other Jews dissembled likewise with him; insomuch that Barnabas also was carried away with their dissimulation.
Gal 2:14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before [them] all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, **why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews? **Gal 2:15 We [who are] Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles,
Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
This is why I oppose the doctrine of “Baptismal Regeneration”. It is a work (or repentance of sin), to attempt to gain justification.

I understand that by concluding my argument in this manner I have opened up a “can of worms” by introucing the doctrines of Baptismal Regeneration, and Replacement Theology, but I am fully prepared to debate these subjects also (on another thread of course).

What I proposed in the beginning of this debate was not a “straw-man” at all, but completely founded according to the Word of God.

John
www.gideonsword.net Gideon’s Sword Ministries
 
The funny thing about this list, even if it weren’t such a joke, is that it would prove what the rest of the non-tinfoil-hat-wearing world knows; the Catholic Church is older than the protestant whose main dogmas of bible alone/faith alone were unheard of before the reformation (and they’re unscriptural but I guess that’s another thread)
Why don’t you start one? And commence with your arguments. 👍

John
www.gideonsword.net
 
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