You mean there really is a secret Papal decoder ring?!!!
Just kidding. I must say your recent posts have been entertaining to say the least. I got quite a laugh from your humor.
It really does seem like we are getting nowhere with this debate. I feel like I have explicated the truth as I see it very clearly, and I am struggling now, not with justifying my statements, but clarifying them to the point they can be understood.
Let’s start over…
The Catholic Church teaches (according to the Council of Trent) that salvatioin occurs when a person is…
- Aroused by Grace - receiving faith by hearing.
- Moved freely toward God.
- Turning themselves from fear of divine justice.
- Raised to hope - they begin to love God.
- Moved against sin by a detestation of it.
- Repentance of that sin (before baptism)
- Resolved to receive baptism.
- Justification
I have no problem whatsoever with that order of events occuring in person’s heart during salvation. My problem with the Catholic Church’s soteirology is based on just WHEN justification occurs.
Rather that submitting to the teaching that justification occurs after baptism. I am submitting to you, that justification occurs at the same time as #2 and #3 (which occur simultaneously).
My reasoning is this… We both agree that, Sinful man who is at enmity with God, has no reason for loving God, except he had received love from God to begin with? That is why God sent His Son to die in our place; becuase He loved us (John 3:16). Hence… point #1 by the Council of Trent.
After receiving faith by previously hearing the Word of God, that person by an act of his or her free will moves toward God while turning from fear of divine judgement (a simultaneous event).
At that exact moment, when that person wills to move toward God, he makes a conscious assertion that to move toward God will save him from divine judgement. Otherwise it would be illogical to move toward Him. This is (biblically) where salvation occurs.
Proof:
According to the Council of Trent, the next events in the order are:
*That person is raised to hope, and begins to love God.
Question #1 - Why would that person love God, if there were no response by God when that person drew nigh to Him? (James 4:8)
*That person is moved against sin by destestation.
Question #2 - How could that person detest sin except God’s position toward sin be revealed to that person? And what cause would that person have to desire the same perspective as God regarding sin, except there already be a union between that person and God? That union being the imputation of righteousness. (Romans 4:22-24)
*Repentance of that sin (before baptism)
Question #3 - Since this type of repentance is the action of “turning away” from sin, what has empowered that person to “repent” if he has not already received the Holy Spirit? Rather than introducing a lengthy debate over types of repentance again, let us look at Romans 7 again:
Rom 7:12 Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good.
Rom 7:13 Was then that which is good made death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful.
Paul here is relaying his experience with the law as a sinful man. Since we all agree that Jesus Christ is the “Incarnate Word”, the law of God is equivalent to the commandments of God, and the Word of God. Jesus is the incarnation of the Law! And He died on the cross as the despised commandment (BTW think about what love He had for us to do that)
Therefore, since Jesus had already gone to sit at the right hand of the Father… how did Paul recieve the revelation of the law of truth? By the law that was written on the tables of his heart (Jer. 31:33)
2Co 3:3 Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart.
Continued in the next post
John
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