The law will not oppose persons engaging in sexual relations - that is clear. And in deciding this, the State did not change anything about the nature and context of marriage.
Obviously if adultery is illegal then marriage legitimates heterosexual sex.
The moment adultery is decriminalised marriage and sexual obligations have been largely decoupled
![Person shrugging :person_shrugging: 🤷](https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f937.png)
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The repeal of fornication laws no doubt faced opposition from some claiming the State was failing to uphold certain virtues, but did the State lessen or fail in its support for those marrying? No.
You don’t seem to understand my point. I am saying the decriminalising of fornication implies that persons do not need to marry to have a legitimate cohabiting sexual relationship. Marriage therefore is no longer the only way to engage in legitimate sex. It is primarily sought for other legal advantages. Sounds like a decoupling of sex from marriage as a legal vehicle to me.
The introduction of SSM is a definitive step which changes the meaning of the thing the State is supporting.
As is clear from above, State marriage rights (if that is what you mean by “meaning” which is all that I am concerned about and not the non-essential overlays culture might additionally add on) have been changing prior to SSM. What’s new? Yes SSM is more directly obvious than those caused by decriminalisation of fornication/adultery.
But given that State marriage has aleady had heterosexual sex rights effectively castrated from the legal rights accorded by olden time State marriage - why would we think this is a direct attempt to legalise gay sex?
It isn’t because decriminalisation of sodomy has already done that - just as adultery and fornication decriminalisation did for heterosexuals.
State marriage law used to support the public sexual union of man and woman. Civil Unions were conceived of to do similar - most often for same sex couples. Neither has to this point ceased to address what we would regard as sexual relationships.
I have no idea what you are trying to say.
State Marriage no longer makes any difference to your legal right to have hetero sex.
Yet once it made it legal.
Consequently modern State Marriage is all about gaining other legal rights associated with committed companionship - but legitimation of sex is no longer part of them.
Note: protracted sexual relationship with cohabitation in many jurisdictions are deemed equivalent to marriage eg. “defacto relationship” etc.].
That you would say this means you did not understand me when I said:
“It also seems good for society that those who show long time permanence automatically access the same CU rights as those formally “married” … be they hetero or gay or whatever.”
The State once saw a particular reason to support (this goes beyond “legally legitimising”) the sexual union of “man + woman”. It has now seen reason to support other kinds of sexual relationships, and moreover, to declare them equivalent.
I disagree.
State marriage no longer legitimises any sexual acts - be they gay or hetero.
This is not in dispute. But nothing done legally has operated to remove the presumption of a sexual element.
People have all sorts of romantics accretions they add onto the legal vehicle.
Presumption of virginity I deem unlikely. Most have already been cohabiting or in a sexual relationship before marriage. You are still seeing state marriage as it used to be. In fact it no longer is from a legal perspective and there is no logic in your presuming a couple’s chastity will change just because they got married. Older couples may not even be marrying for sex anyways but for other benefits.
In reality, marriage or CU - these are understood to be sexual relationships.
This makes no sense. Couples who get state marriages cannot be presumed to be changing their sex lives at all
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Given that marriage no longer provides legal rights re sex why would they?
The legal benefits they seek in marriage are obvious - but anything to do with sex is just romance and therefore optional not presumed.
Which is why I have come to the conclusion that there is nothing in current US marriage law that must have us presume it is legally legitimising gay sex.
I would not think the Church has any objection to the remaining legal advantages that such marriage does provide to cohabiting gay couples whether sexually active or not.
Such marriages will not change what they are already doing from a sexual point of view
![Person shrugging :person_shrugging: 🤷](https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f937.png)