A
algebra
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In what part of the quran are the verses that forbid the union of a muslim woman with a non-muslim man?
According to chapter Al-Ma’dah: 5 , Muslim men are allowed to marry chaste Jewish & Christian women. There is no verse in holy Quran that says Muslim Women are allowed to marry non-Muslims. Why not ask your wife to show the verse if there is any ?… you are forbidding that which Allah has permitted.
I don’t believe that there are any verses in the koran stating that a “woman can marry a man from the people of the book”.** In the name of Allah , the Most Gracious , Ever Merciful **
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According to chapter Al-Ma’dah: 5 , Muslim men are allowed to marry chaste Jewish & Christian women. There is no verse in holy Quran that says Muslim Women are allowed to marry non-Muslims. Why not ask your wife to show the verse if there is any ?
nope . by not allowing Muslim Women to marry non-Muslims , there is a guide line…It seems like allah wanted to guide the men only and not the women, …
You haven’t been reading very closely. 2.221 sets out the standard for both men and women. They are exactly parallel.I don’t believe that there are any verses in the koran stating that a “woman can marry a man from the people of the book”.
All of the marriage verses I’ve been reading all morning are for men telling them what to do/not to do - there is no guide for women.
It seems like allah wanted to guide the men only and not the women, but we already know why the women don’t have the same rights as men by now…
I believe the discussion was for “people of the book” - NOT pagans and slaves.You haven’t been reading very closely. 2.221 sets out the standard for both men and women. They are exactly parallel.
Men are not to marry from among “al-mus’rikun”; they should prefer an believing slave to a free pagan. Likewise when choosing a spouse for “your daughters”, do not marry your daughters to “al-mus’rikun”, but prefer a believing slave over a free pagan (no matter how much you like the pagan…i.e., no matter how advantageous the marriage).
I do not think the passage from 5.5 says anything new or different though it does clarify what the contrast between pagan and believer covers.
I think MuslimWoman has explained pretty well why it has played out differently in practice for so long.
the distinction made in 2.221 is between al-mus’rikun (which I am translating as pagans) and believers. We are told not to marry the pagan. 5.5 helps us clarify.I believe the discussion was for “people of the book” - NOT pagans and slaves.
Regardless of what you wrote - the bottom line is what I said earlier.the distinction made in 2.221 is between al-mus’rikun (which I am translating as pagans) and believers. We are told not to marry the pagan. 5.5 helps us clarify.
What you said earlier is that men get guidance and women do not. This is not only obviously false, but in the preeminent passage on who we ought to marry that is found in the Qur’an (2.221) we receive exactly the same guidance (I think this is the point that algebra was, in fact, trying to bring out in his original question, in a not so subtle way).Regardless of what you wrote - the bottom line is what I said earlier.
Show me the verse where it states that a “muslim woman” can marry a **man **from “people of the book”.What you said earlier is that men get guidance and women do not. This is not only obviously false, but in the preeminent passage on who we ought to marry that is found in the Qur’an (2.221) we receive exactly the same guidance (I think this is the point that algebra was, in fact, trying to bring out in his original question, in a not so subtle way).
The reasons that it has played out differently in practice for men and women are addressed well enough by MuslimWoman.
I have already pointed out, on multiple occasions now 2.221 and given an interpretation of it.Show me the verse where it states that a “muslim woman” can marry a **man **from “people of the book”.
That is correct.Algebra should please correct me if I am wrong, but the whole point of the question was to point out that the Qur’an itself does not forbid women from marrying those who faithfully follow the One in accordance with earlier “books” (e.g., Christians and Jews).
The koran **only **states that men can marry wormen from “people of the book”… it does not say that muslim women can marry “people of the book”.I have already pointed out, on multiple occasions now 2.221 and given an interpretation of it.
So, you show me where it says they can’t. That we don’t marry Christians and Jews, and why is a different issue. But al-mus’rikun clearly does not include those who faithfully follow the One in accordance with previous “books”.
Algebra should please correct me if I am wrong, but the whole point of the question was to point out that the Qur’an itself does not forbid women from marrying those who faithfully follow the One in accordance with earlier “books” (e.g., Christians and Jews).
I think in order to hold such a reading you have to think that 5.5 is saying something new, in addition to what was already said in 2.221. In order for that to be the case 2.221 would have to be profoundly unhelpful passage: You are not allowed to marry pagans, “believers” would only apply to Muslims, and there are a whole broad group of people, neither pagan nor Muslim who are unaddressed. That does not, it seems to me, comport with the sense of 2.221 which, it seems, on a fairly obvious reading, to provide an exhaustive distinction in which there is no middle group. There are the pagans, and those that believe in one God. We are allowed to marry those that believe in the One.The koran **only **states that men can marry wormen from “people of the book”… it does not say that muslim women can marry “people of the book”.
I concur based on my statement earlier that the verse is for men only, not women.
Algebra stated, from what I gather, **claims that there is nothing in the koran that states otherwise - that there is no verse in the koran where it claims muslim women cannot marry Jews/Christians. **…
Now that last sentence I would agree with entirely. There is nothing in the Qur’an that forbids marriage of, for instance, a Jew or Christian by a woman (and in fact I would say that 2.221 gives us the exact same options as men). But, traditionally, we do not do it for other reasons.He is correct. There is nothing in the koran that a muslim woman cannot marry a Jew/Christian - but the islamic thought is that it is not proper practice.
yes thats true,because when children are born the children usually follow the fathers tradition and religionRegardless of what you wrote - the bottom line is what I said earlier.
A muslim man can marry from the “people of the book” - Christian/Jew
A muslim woman **cannot **marry from the “people of the book” - Christian/Jew
Please , show me the verse that allows Muslim Women to marry non-Muslims . Mother Aisha (ra ) was first engaged to another man -Zubair. When he refused to accept Islam , marriage proposal was broken . Prophet’s daughter was married to Abu Lahab’s son . He refusued to accept Islam & divorced her .… Qur’an itself does not forbid women from marrying those who faithfully follow the One in accordance with earlier “books” (e.g., Christians and Jews).