That is not a claim that I need to make. It has not been established on this thread, or anywhere, for that matter, given that the claim in question is false, that the Church espouses a literal view of scripture in all circumstances and as an explicit practice takes individual statements from the Bible and turns them into prescriptive statements applicable to all peoples in all aeons.
I do not need to “adduce evidence” on this issue because your statement is based on a false premise.
It remains that the Church does not morally prohibit women from working outside the home though they be current mothers.
That is totally false. The CCC is a testament to how absurd your claim is.
Furthermore, the Church does not simply leave issues of morality like this up to individual Catholics; q.v. the entirety of the CCC.
Let us consider the CCC’s actual teachings. We see in no. 110 that
Certainly relevant here.
Although the literal sense is mentioned here, it is not clear – as you claim with no evidence – that the words listed in St. Paul’s letters ought to be taken as morally binding forever and ever. The Church does not explicitly espouse this position. Your counterargument is that the Church need not expound on something so obvious. This fails on two grounds: 1) This issue is of great importance because it determines the makeup and functioning of society for all eternity, and 2) It is clear that there is disagreement among the faithful on the morality involved. Thus, the fact that the Church has not spoken on is certainly justified as evidence that there is no moral issue here.
No, it does not. The Church does not invariably take isolated statements from Scripture, as you suggest, and make them into moral imperative.
Not true; cf. no. 110 of the CCC. Furthermore, your definition of “keepers at home” is an interpretation of St. Paul’s words, not reality. In addition, the passage uses “women” synonymously with “wives,” something that the Catholic Church does not recognize as a valid equivocation.
That is a false equivalent. The fact that other aspects of his orders remain in force does not mean that all need to. See above for additional problems.
Show us.
Dear Baelor,
Cordial greetings and thankyou for your response.
Can I ask, my dear friend, where I have said in any of my posts that our Church adheres to the literal interpretation of Sacred Scripture on
all occasions?
The Church has not officially modified or changed its teaching respecting the role of married women being “workers at home”, thus it is perfectly reasonable to assume that St. Paul’s teaching has perpetual validity. Moreover, the Church has not even spoken, as far as I am aware, of married women working outside of the home. If you believe that it has, can you kindly adduce some evidence in support of this, dear brother.
The Church has officially only interpreted a small number of passages infallibly and it does leave it to the faithful to interpret it for themselves, with the provsio that they do not interpret it in such a manner as to be contrary to the teachings of Holy Mother Church. Indeed, this is quite clear from the Catechism itself, where in the section treating of the subject of the interpretation of Sacred Scripture, it speaks of “the reader”; “To interpret Scripture correctly,
the reader must be attentive to what the authors truly wanted to affirm…” (para. 109, emphasis mine, see also para.110). Who is "the reader " of Sacred Scripture herein refered to, dear friend, if not the ordinary lay Catholic? Observe that it is assumed from para. 109 that he will elucidate the sacred text for himself, albeit by the correct criteria and giving due attention the senses of Scripture. The Catholic layman is at liberty to interpret the bible, so long as he does not use it to argue against the magisterial teaching of the Church. Would the Church be needed, for example, to infallibly interpret Proverbs 31, which I was discussing in an earlier post today?
Titus 2: 4,5 may well be an “isolated” passage, notwithstanding, my dear friend, it forms a part of one of the “Books of Scripture” (CCC para. 107) and so cannot be dismissed as of no importance. Moreover, if the clause occurs amidst general
practical instructions for a women, then in what other sense can it be interpreted, other than the literal sense? Look, my dear chap, we do not interpret loving husbands, being kind or being chaste in other sense than the literal, so why would we need to interpret “workers at home” in any other sense?
What you call “my interpetation” of the Titus passage is actually the way that it has always been understood by Catholic and Protestant exegetes. If you think this is incorrect, then what do think the pharse, “workers at home” means?
The “young women” of the passage are married, which is why they are exhorted to love their husbands. They are both women
and wives - sorry, old chap, but I do not understand your point here at all.
Why should one accept all the other requirements of Titus 2: 4,5 and yet reject the requirement for married women to be “workers at home”. Forgive me dear friend, but this sounds very much like cherry picking for polemical motives. Thus far you have provided no valid or cogent reason as to why we should reject this clause, yet accept all of the others as having continuing validity and relevance.
Were we having this discussion only 60 years ago, I think that Holy Mother Church would have supported my position and certainly my understanding of Titus 2: 4,5. Both the moral sense of the faithful and the Church would have been decidedly against married women pursuing a career outside of the home, as that would have been considered improper and a denial of her role as wife and mother.
God bless.
Warmest good wishes,
Portrait
Pax