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AngryAtheist8
Guest
Originally Posted by AngryAtheist8
That’s because obedience is easy to define but ‘love’ is more ambiguous.
For instance, let’s say a man says that he loves his wife and kids and actually believes that. But after work he gets drunk at the bar every night and then goes home and beats those same people.
Now does he really love them or not?
Does it matter?
Moreover, the law and culture have often demanded that wives obey their husbands (giving husbands substantial legal and social power over their wives) but virtually no laws anywhere demand that a man love his wife.
That’s because obedience is easy to define but ‘love’ is more ambiguous.
For instance, let’s say a man says that he loves his wife and kids and actually believes that. But after work he gets drunk at the bar every night and then goes home and beats those same people.
Now does he really love them or not?
Does it matter?
Moreover, the law and culture have often demanded that wives obey their husbands (giving husbands substantial legal and social power over their wives) but virtually no laws anywhere demand that a man love his wife.
Even assuming that you’re right, a law that’s never enforced (as this one has not been) is in practice the same as having no law at all.i think you just found the law saying the man should love his wife, the biblical law. And you previous concern i think love is shown by actions. Maybe i way to understand what paul means when he say husband should love is by looking at the way he describes love 1cor 13. Look at that passage and tell me if love allows for a sceneria where another is oppressed. This is how i see it.
Ubenedictus