B
BobCatholic
Guest
Welcome home, both of you!Congratulations , I hope we can welcome you home soon. I too am a protestant on my way home.
Shari
Welcome home, both of you!Congratulations , I hope we can welcome you home soon. I too am a protestant on my way home.
Shari
I donât disagree with you. But there is a caveat to be observed in talkingabou the Greek that âJesus used.â Chances are very slim that he was speaking in Greek with his disciples. His discourse was much more likely in Aramaic. It was translated to Greek and written by the author of the Gospel. So it can be a slippery slope when you base an interpretation on a fine (or not so fine) point of Greek grammar when that was not the original language of the phrase being interpreted.Sabrin: Thatâs great! Have you looked closely at 1 Cor. 11? And also, have you looked into the Greek Jesus uses in John 6? The verb he uses for âeatâ apparently gets more literalâŚthe words he uses are apparently akin to âchewingâ and âgnawingâ. Dave Armstrongâs book is great for explaining the Real Presence and many other issues, A Biblical Defence of Catholicism, which is available in a .doc format as well (his site is ic.net/~erasmus/RAZINDEX.HTM).
Itâs not so slippery if you take into the account of the fact that the âAuthorâ, unlike a translator, is operating under inspiration. If John wrote his gospel in Aramaic and it was then translated/transliterated into Greek by someone else you would have a point.But there is a caveat to be observed in talkingabou the Greek that âJesus used.â Chances are very slim that he was speaking in Greek with his disciples. His discourse was much more likely in Aramaic. It was translated to Greek and written by the author of the Gospel. So it can be a slippery slope when you base an interpretation on a fine (or not so fine) point of Greek grammar when that was not the original language of the phrase being interpreted."
TK -Itâs not so slippery if you take into the account of the fact that the âAuthorâ, unlike a translator, is operating under inspiration. If John wrote his gospel in Aramaic and it was then translated/transliterated into Greek by someone else you would have a point.
This is why scripture scholars review biblical translations on a regular basis with an eye to the latest archeological discoveries, so that they can ensure modern translation, such as English, reflect the meaning of the original languages.
Pax, TK
Some day I hope to visit.Hurray for Eucharistic miracles! not only have the species changed to a human heart and blood they are ALIVE scientists have tested and studied samples and I recall that the heart cells are still beating and the blood has not coagulated(clotted) Whyâs that a miracle in itself well many happened in the 8th century AD WOWSERS!
You can visit the miracles too I know there are a couple in Italy so if you have some time over there check them out!
Peace and God bless
I will give an argument put forth by Martin Luther in a book I have called Three Treatises. âThe sixth chapter of John must be exluded from this discussion, since it does not refer to the sacrament in a single syllable, Not only because the sacrament was not yet institutedâŚâ. He goes on to explain how Christ was speaking of faith in the incarnate Word, and how the sacrament was instituted later.Would like to hear some of the arguments against John 6.
If Jesus was speaking âsymbolicallyâ, what âproofâ can be shown to support that?
I think you really got it there.Itâs about supernatural faith and if you have it or not.
The major problem with this interpretation of John 6 is the verb in Jesusâ quote, which is best translated as âto munch or grind or gnawâ. His listeners were appalled, of course, since He seemed to advocate cannibalism; He made no effort to correct their âmisunderstandingâ, letting them walk away, becasue they had understood Him correctly: one must eat His flesh and blood. And that is what the Holy Eucharist is.I will give an argument put forth by Martin Luther in a book I have called Three Treatises. âThe sixth chapter of John must be exluded from this discussion, since it does not refer to the sacrament in a single syllable, Not only because the sacrament was not yet institutedâŚâ. He goes on to explain how Christ was speaking of faith in the incarnate Word, and how the sacrament was instituted later.
It is a very lengthy explanation and I have only given a bullet point.
Gobleonian
OK, Let me make friends with the Devil.Would like to hear some of the arguments against John 6.
If Jesus was speaking âsymbolicallyâ, what âproofâ can be shown to support that?