Asexual Marriage

  • Thread starter Thread starter Andrea_Day
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
It’s not the celebration of purity. It’s just double standards. Porn is seen as a man’s problem, and if a woman were to be hooked on it, she is often shamed for it. Usually women who are hooked on porn feel so alone. Or how men are praised for sleeping around but when a woman does that, she gets called names that aren’t nice to repeat here. If a woman were to flaunt her sexuality vs a man, well the same thing applies.

Modern feminism of course tried to fix it by switching it around-blaming men for objectifying women and encouraging women to be sexual. But like with almost any issue, it didn’t fix rhe problem.
Porn for men takes on different form from porn for women.

Men’s porn feature visual media while porn for women takes on the form of the written word. Hence you have bodice ripper books which are not “romance” novels but porn disguised as romance novels.
 
Porn for men takes on different form from porn for women.

Men’s porn feature visual media while porn for women takes on the form of the written word. Hence you have bodice ripper books which are not “romance” novels but porn disguised as romance novels.
This is a stereotype. Women also consume visual porn and men also consume written porn.
 
This is a stereotype. Women also consume visual porn and men also consume written porn.
Yes. Although visual porn made for women is different than porn made for men (in terms of angles, sounds and length) because well, women need more than mechanical movements to get pleasure from it.

We don’t really hear much about women watching porn because like I said, it’s generally seen as a man’s problem. It’s beginning to change though.

Erotica is popular with women not necessarily because it is written but because there is a story (buildup). However there are men who like that as well.

I’m rambling on and on but I guess my point is that the 'woman/man’s thing" while it’s not entirely wrong based on an extremely broad generalisation, it is not helpful, and it creates isolation which is not particularly helpful for the person to reach out for help.
 
In response to the original question. Yeah, you probably could have an asexual marriage if you met someone who wanted that as well. Marriage is not purely about sex. You would have to consummate it though.

The other thing that comes to mind is that there would always be the possibility that the other spouse would change in their desire for sex. There is implicit in marriage, the idea that sex is a reasonable expectation from time to time and you would then be in a position where you may not desire sex but your husband does. What then?
 
I think there are plenty of good Catholic people that married, maybe had sex 1, or a few times in their marriage, and still went to heaven.

Many people are just not very sexual. Some are shy, some are self-conscious, some are scared, and some just don’t want sex.

Judgement in this regard is swift. Accusations of all sorts fly.

This is my understanding: it’s not a sin to remain abstinent from sex.

If both partners in the marriage abstain from sex, they’re still married. They still love each other. They still worship God and put him first.

If one of neither has sexual urges whatsoever, then where is the sin if they do not partake in sex?

Is there sin in the abstaining from sex?

Is there sin in not wanting sex with anyone?

Is there a sin in wanting love, affection, a partner, a lover, someone to have and to hold until death, without the sex?

There’s many suffering people with low to non-existent sex drives. They’re not homosexual.

They’re not selfish.

They’re not hurting others intentionally.

Depression, anxiety and rejection can also really destroy the sex drive.
 
I think there are plenty of good Catholic people that married, maybe had sex 1, or a few times in their marriage, and still went to heaven.

Many people are just not very sexual. Some are shy, some are self-conscious, some are scared, and some just don’t want sex.

Judgement in this regard is swift. Accusations of all sorts fly.

This is my understanding: it’s not a sin to remain abstinent from sex.

If both partners in the marriage abstain from sex, they’re still married. They still love each other. They still worship God and put him first.

If one of neither has sexual urges whatsoever, then where is the sin if they do not partake in sex?

Is there sin in the abstaining from sex?

Is there sin in not wanting sex with anyone?

Is there a sin in wanting love, affection, a partner, a lover, someone to have and to hold until death, without the sex?

There’s many suffering people with low to non-existent sex drives. They’re not homosexual.

They’re not selfish.

They’re not hurting others intentionally.

Depression, anxiety and rejection can also really destroy the sex drive.
As long as both parties are in agreement, then you’re exactly right.

But if one changes their mind (say, if the root of their low level of sexual interest has a medical origin and that is fixed), and wishes to have conjugal relations, then the other spouse should comply (and do so happily).

The gift of one’s sexuality is an important part of marriage - it’s what sets marriage apart from other kinds of relationships. I think if you want to be married, you need to be prepared to give that gift, even if you don’t think you’d ever ask for it yourself.

I think going into marriage thinking that you won’t ever be asked to sacrifice - whether it’s having sex when you’re not “in the mood” or any other thing - is not only the wrong mindset, but a terrible breeding ground for resentment.
 
After reading various threads on marriage, I’ve come to the conclusion that Catholic marriage is first and foremost about having children. That’s why gay people can’t marry, that’s why impotent people can’t marry.

And you’re not supposed to have sex until you marry because you might end up with a pregnancy. A married couple has a better chance of providing for a child, plus it makes all the inheritances and family relationships easier to determine. Further, children without parents are a burden to society.

Yes, as I think about it, the rules about sex and marriage are regulations designed to control and sustain social structures that were critical to the survival of the ancient tribes of Israel, just as the rules about kosher eating helped protect the public health in the days before refrigeration.
 
As long as both parties are in agreement, then you’re exactly right.

But if one changes their mind (say, if the root of their low level of sexual interest has a medical origin and that is fixed), and wishes to have conjugal relations, then the other spouse should comply (and do so happily).

The gift of one’s sexuality is an important part of marriage - it’s what sets marriage apart from other kinds of relationships.** I think if you want to be married, you need to be prepared to give that gift, even if you don’t think you’d ever ask for it yourself.
**
I think going into marriage thinking that you won’t ever be asked to sacrifice - whether it’s having sex when you’re not “in the mood” or any other thing - is not only the wrong mindset, but a terrible breeding ground for resentment.
I think this is the bottom line here. Yes, you probably can have a sex-free marriage, but you should be prepared to give yourself sexually to your spouse, because that is one of the expectations that both spouse may rightly have in marriage. It is generally implied in marriage that the spouses will have sex at some point and will try to have children. If one spouse expresses the desire to have sex at some point, then the other spouse should be prepared to comply, because they both have a right to expect that from their spouse.
 
After reading various threads on marriage, I’ve come to the conclusion that Catholic marriage is first and foremost about having children. That’s why gay people can’t marry, that’s why impotent people can’t marry.

And you’re not supposed to have sex until you marry because you might end up with a pregnancy. A married couple has a better chance of providing for a child, plus it makes all the inheritances and family relationships easier to determine. Further, children without parents are a burden to society.

Yes, as I think about it, the rules about sex and marriage are regulations designed to control and sustain social structures that were critical to the survival of the ancient tribes of Israel, just as the rules about kosher eating helped protect the public health in the days before refrigeration.
Ordered to procreation but may be sterile but not impotent and conjugal act makes them one flesh.

Canon Law (CIC)

Can. 1055
  • §1. The matrimonial covenant, by which a man and a woman establish between themselves a partnership of the whole of life and which is ordered by its nature to the good of the spouses and the procreation and education of offspring, has been raised by Christ the Lord to the dignity of a sacrament between the baptized.
  • §2. For this reason, a valid matrimonial contract cannot exist between the baptized without it being by that fact a sacrament.
Can. 1061
  • §1. A valid marriage between the baptized is called ratum tantum if it has not been consummated; it is called ratum et consummatum if the spouses have performed between themselves in a human fashion a conjugal act which is suitable in itself for the procreation of offspring, to which marriage is ordered by its nature and by which the spouses become one flesh.
  • §2. After a marriage has been celebrated, if the spouses have lived together consummation is presumed until the contrary is proven.
  • §3. An invalid marriage is called putative if at least one party celebrated it in good faith, until both parties become certain of its nullity.
Can. 1084
  • §1. Antecedent and perpetual impotence to have intercourse, whether on the part of the man or the woman, whether absolute or relative, nullifies marriage by its very nature.
  • §2. If the impediment of impotence is doubtful, whether by a doubt about the law or a doubt about a fact, a marriage must not be impeded nor, while the doubt remains, declared null.
  • §3. Sterility neither prohibits nor nullifies marriage, without prejudice to the prescript of ⇒ can. 1098.
Can. 1098
  • A person contracts invalidly who enters into a marriage deceived by malice, perpetrated to obtain consent, concerning some quality of the other partner which by its very nature can gravely disturb the partnership of conjugal life.
Can. 1096
  • §1. For matrimonial consent to exist, the contracting parties must be at least not ignorant that marriage is a permanent partnership between a man and a woman ordered to the procreation of offspring by means of some sexual cooperation.
  • §2. This ignorance is not presumed after puberty.
 
Ordered to procreation but may be sterile but not impotent and conjugal act makes them one flesh.
I don’t fully understand why impotence is a determining factor. Maybe I’m overthinking it. Is it really as simple as being capable of physically joining together in a “procreative” manner?

How does the Church define impotence? Theoretically, a man with complete erectile dysfunction might, with the help of his wife, be able to manipulate the parts into the proper arrangement. Given that, it would seem to me that “impotence” could be limited to the absence of external male genitalia.
 
I don’t fully understand why impotence is a determining factor. Maybe I’m overthinking it. Is it really as simple as being capable of physically joining together in a “procreative” manner?

How does the Church define impotence? Theoretically, a man with complete erectile dysfunction might, with the help of his wife, be able to manipulate the parts into the proper arrangement. Given that, it would seem to me that “impotence” could be limited to the absence of external male genitalia.
To my understanding, yes, it is that simple, but the Church is very generous about it when couples marry.

That said, if the couple later separates and asks for an investigation about validity, impotence could be grounds for nullity (though if the marriage has never been consummated, it can be dissolved and no annulment is required.)

(As another poster notes, though, I’m not a canon lawyer.)
 
I don’t fully understand why impotence is a determining factor. Maybe I’m overthinking it. Is it really as simple as being capable of physically joining together in a “procreative” manner?

How does the Church define impotence? Theoretically, a man with complete erectile dysfunction might, with the help of his wife, be able to manipulate the parts into the proper arrangement. Given that, it would seem to me that “impotence” could be limited to the absence of external male genitalia.
I remember reading a dubium from the Holy See once which stated that the male must be able to deposit fluid through the conjugal act, even though not fertile. I think that criteria was for determining an impediment. I will look it up later.

Although a couple can have a valid marriage without consummation, if it remains unconsummated then it may be dissolved. Canon Can. 1061 §1.
 
I don’t fully understand why impotence is a determining factor. Maybe I’m overthinking it. Is it really as simple as being capable of physically joining together in a “procreative” manner?

How does the Church define impotence? Theoretically, a man with complete erectile dysfunction might, with the help of his wife, be able to manipulate the parts into the proper arrangement. Given that, it would seem to me that “impotence” could be limited to the absence of external male genitalia.
Finally, on 13 May 1977, the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, now clearly exercising its doctrinal competence, stated, with the explicit approval of the Roman Pontiff, that the authentic current teaching of the Church is that while impotence is indeed an impediment to marriage, the concept of canonical potency does not necessarily require anything in the ejaculate that has been produced in the testicles. As a decree of the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, this becomes normative for the whole Church and is of considerable doctrinal authority, although it is, of course, neither infallible nor irreformable.

ewtn.com/library/Doctrine/IMPOSTER.HTM
  1. Whether the impotence which invalidates marriage consists in the incapacity, both antecedent and perpetual, whether absolute or relative, of completing conjugal intercourse.
  2. If affirmative, whether the ejaculation of semen produced in the testicles is necessarily required for conjugal intercourse.
To the first question, the answer is affirmative; to the second, negative
 
I wanted to add a problem I have, because for me there needs to be clarity in one point. In my opinion one cannot ask for intercourse as obligation in the name of love. In my reasoning, that can’t happen (though I know my reasoning is not the one blessed by the Holy Spirit, lol).

I saw in a movie (Karol the man who become Pope) that someone states that the nazis were going to pass away, because evil will destroy itself, but if love is not taught and shown correctly, evil will come back with another name. This is the importance of seeking what is true love and therefore what is true goodness, and learning about their source (us catholics know that the source is God). This is why I like clarity, because I believe this remark is very true.

Intercourse is not a duty or a right in the sense that you can “forcibly” ask for it in the name of love (as an obligation to give pleasure), because (in my understanding) it would cancel the essence of love (sacrifice, the cross) for pleasure. In the sense that we can’t sacrifice someone for pleasure because we sacrifice the pleasure for someone.
I believe (my opinion) we cannot use the word duty, comply, or even be obliged (in the sense of having a favor out of debt, in my case it is more permissible in the definition of giving a favor to a loved one), as for me you would be saying that one can be obligated to give pleasure (in the name of love), but if the essence of the union of intercourse has a procreative and a unitive essence, then why do people think they can “force” someone that doesn’t want to have intercourse (for pleasure), and say, that is love, how can that be love in your understanding, because I cannot say it is love in my mind?

Some can say they agree that a Josephite marriage is possible, but my problem is, when one uses that a spouse should be obliged (give a favor out of a debt) to have intercourse in case one spouse wants to have intercourse. Now it would be a better case if the spouse wants a child, that would change my reasoning a bit, but most of the times that people referred that one has to be obliged, is for pleasures sake. Then doesn’t that make the Josephite marriage an impractical thing, because if you are living your life in the world, one will have temptations of many kinds. A josephite marriage is not an easy thing, but it will never come to be if we do not try to persevere over temptations (an urge for example, as that will happen surely), and practice the faith, spirituality.

We know that Mary and Joseph had the ability to “consummate” their marriage, but stayed celibate. In my reasoning, because their spirituality was so high, that intercourse (its desire) was not a problem to detach from (as they were with God, the source of love and the source of why we want love). But don’t you think then, that the lack of spirituality in people closes that door to this kind of detachment (and to many more)? But then isn’t this lack of spirituality, or understanding that spirituality takes the same formula of self denial and the cross, preventing us from seeing faith as a reality (as living the faith is in fact spirituality), God in us, and changes it for the sum of all pleasures way, which is why we don’t understand detachment.

I saw this quote (I don’t know if it is in fact a real quote but it seems like it is):
“GOD has assigned as a duty to every man the dignity of every woman.” Saint Pope John Paul II

So in my reasoning, I as a man, cannot think that if I would “force” (as an obligation of marriage) my spouse to have intercourse, I would be doing a saintly thing (this is just my circumstance though, my way of thinking). And add to this the Ephesians scripture:
“25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ loved the church and handed himself over for her 26 to sanctify her, cleansing her by the bath of water with the word, 27 that he might present to himself the church in splendor, without spot or wrinkle or any such thing, that she might be holy and without blemish.” Ephesians 5, 25

The body helps bring the desire so that we desire to be one, to a certain extent (the sex drive with its end procreation), though the “one-ness” of the result of the act (to become one flesh, and we should love our own flesh (Ephesians 5, 30)), does not rely on the physical “accident” but on the spiritual one (as the “one-ness” needs love, only love can unite), as that is what truly follows the natural order in man (to love God first, to love others like ourselves, and love like He does, as that are the commandments).
For example, I cannot fathom that a saint will ask for intercourse as an obligation.
Marriage is directed toward procreation because the union of a man and a woman needs to flourish, and how more disposed can this union be but by giving life. The uniting essence is fulfilled when the physical accidents join to create a new vessel for a new soul. But those “accidents” need to have the essence of the union, which resides in the interior part of the man and the woman, their soul and spirit. That essence is love.
 
That physical union, creates in a certain way a “cradle” for the union of the spouses, referring to the interior one. But that interior union is not bound by the physical one, the physical is just or can be its cradle, because the physical can be distorted in such a way that it becomes something against love.

The physical union does not create the essence of love (in my opinion), because love is not property of the body. Intercourse is not love, as the act can be of love, but it can also not be of love.

The unity of man and woman needs to be aligned with procreation because that follows the possibility of life, so that makes it open to life.

But as Mary and Joseph shows us, a marriage can live without intercourse and be a marriage. A “josephite” marriage can adopt for example, and help on that regard. The problem I have is not about being or not able to have intercourse, as marriage is ordered toward procreation, but many believe (I could be wrong though), that we can sacrifice a person for our pleasure and the other has to be obliged, which in my thinking that is absolutely a wrong assumption. We sacrifice our pleasure for the person, if we don’t have that clarity, I would say that, how can we be able to give our life for example. In my reasoning I can’t add these two things and end up in love.
 
For example, I cannot fathom that a saint will ask for intercourse as an obligation.
Marriage is directed toward procreation because the union of a man and a woman needs to flourish, and how more disposed can this union be but by giving life. The uniting essence is fulfilled when the physical accidents join to create a new vessel for a new soul. But those “accidents” need to have the essence of the union, which resides in the interior part of the man and the woman, their soul and spirit. That essence is love.
A Saint is anyone in the state of sanctifying grace, or faithfully departed.

I believe the logic is not that it " is for pleasures sake" rather as St. Paul said to avoid immorality:

1 Cor. 7
1 Now in regard to the matters about which you wrote: “It is a good thing for a man not to touch a woman,”*
2 but because of cases of immorality every man should have his own wife, and every woman her own husband.
3 The husband should fulfill his duty toward his wife, and likewise the wife toward her husband.
4 A wife does not have authority over her own body, but rather her husband, and similarly a husband does not have authority over his own body, but rather his wife.
5 Do not deprive each other, except perhaps by mutual consent for a time, to be free for prayer, but then return to one another, so that Satan may not tempt you through your lack of self-control.
6 This I say by way of concession,* however, not as a command.
7 Indeed, I wish everyone to be as I am, but each has a particular gift from God,* one of one kind and one of another.a

And in 1 Cor. 13
4 Charity is patient, is kind: charity envieth not, dealeth not perversely; is not puffed up;
5 Is not ambitious, seeketh not her own, is not provoked to anger, thinketh no evil;
6 Rejoiceth not in iniquity, but rejoiceth with the truth;
7 Beareth all things, believeth all things, hopeth all things, endureth all things.
8 Charity never falleth away: whether prophecies shall be made void, or tongues shall cease, or knowledge shall be destroyed.
 
Yes Vico, I don’t have a problem with those verses, as one can have intercourse in marriage.

But my understandings stands. We know that marriage is ordered for procreation, but one in the road of sainthood, in my reasoning, will know that detachment is the way to love correctly (self denial and the cross) and exactly applies what is stated on 1 Cor 13, then one will sacrifices oneself to love correctly.

That is exactly my point, one in the road of sainthood will not make someone act their obligation and “force” someone and believe it is in the name of love, because one that acts love acts the sacrifice (decides for the sacrifice as one knows one needs detachment to get to the level of how God loves us), not sacrifices one. That’s why one that loves, sacrifices his pleasure, rather than to be willing to sacrifice someone for their pleasures.
 
Yes Vico, I don’t have a problem with those verses, as one can have intercourse in marriage.

But my understandings stands. We know that marriage is ordered for procreation, but one in the road of sainthood, in my reasoning, will know that detachment is the way to love correctly (self denial and the cross) and exactly applies what is stated on 1 Cor 13, then one will sacrifices oneself to love correctly.

That is exactly my point, one in the road of sainthood will not make someone act their obligation and “force” someone and believe it is in the name of love, because one that acts love acts the sacrifice (decides for the sacrifice as one knows one needs detachment to get to the level of how God loves us), not sacrifices one. That’s why one that loves, sacrifices his pleasure, rather than to be willing to sacrifice someone for their pleasures.
Ok, then the use of the word ask is misleading, it should have been demand then.
 
Ok, then the use of the word ask is misleading, it should have been demand then.
I don’t know from where you are you referring from, so I dont know if I got your post, but the point is always the approach in my opinion (thats the clarification, I believe is needed). That’s why I say, that when you put the words obligation, right, comply, obliged (in some of its definition), the approach changes. It doesn’t matter how one ask if one has one specific way (approach) in mind (meaning as an obligation, right, etc). Thats why love is not a feeling or just knowledge, it is an action. To love. And love works and acts a certain way.Well that’s how I see it.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top