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UnworthyApostle
Guest
1 John 5:13 “These things I write to you, that you may know that you have eternal life, you who believe in the name of the Son of God”
I know the church does not teach assurance of salvation in the fundamentalist sense, but this verse has at least some sort of assuring sense. I mean, I do not believe in accept Christ,poof your saved, but I am wondering if one can have some sort of assurance. I know that this verse was addressed to a specific people in a specific context, so it probably only aplies to them in the most literal sense. I wonder what others on here may think.
Also, I have studied verses in John 6 which are intriguing and mysterious.
44 No man can come to me, except the Father, who hath sent me, draw him; and I will raise him up in the last day. 45 It is written in the prophets: And they shall all be taught of God. Every one that hath heard of the Father, and hath learned, cometh to me.
66And he said: Therefore did I say to you, that no man can come to me, unless it be given him by my Father.
I have tried to see what sense these verses can be read in, that is, in a Thomistic sense or more of a Arminian/Molinist sense. On one hand it seems that God gives grace to some and passes over the hardened of heart, verses 44 and 65 have a very Thomistic sound. Verse 45 although has a different sound; it says that people shall be taught of God and it is these teachings which draw a man to God, through grace of course, and it seems that one may be drawn to God by teachings and then come to know Him. What I am getting at is that of the question that asks if faith comes before grace or grace after faith. The first of the afromentioned scenarios carries a Thomistic view while the second carries more of Molinist view that stresses the free will more. I also wonder what is everyone’s take on these verses.
I know the church does not teach assurance of salvation in the fundamentalist sense, but this verse has at least some sort of assuring sense. I mean, I do not believe in accept Christ,poof your saved, but I am wondering if one can have some sort of assurance. I know that this verse was addressed to a specific people in a specific context, so it probably only aplies to them in the most literal sense. I wonder what others on here may think.
Also, I have studied verses in John 6 which are intriguing and mysterious.
44 No man can come to me, except the Father, who hath sent me, draw him; and I will raise him up in the last day. 45 It is written in the prophets: And they shall all be taught of God. Every one that hath heard of the Father, and hath learned, cometh to me.
66And he said: Therefore did I say to you, that no man can come to me, unless it be given him by my Father.
I have tried to see what sense these verses can be read in, that is, in a Thomistic sense or more of a Arminian/Molinist sense. On one hand it seems that God gives grace to some and passes over the hardened of heart, verses 44 and 65 have a very Thomistic sound. Verse 45 although has a different sound; it says that people shall be taught of God and it is these teachings which draw a man to God, through grace of course, and it seems that one may be drawn to God by teachings and then come to know Him. What I am getting at is that of the question that asks if faith comes before grace or grace after faith. The first of the afromentioned scenarios carries a Thomistic view while the second carries more of Molinist view that stresses the free will more. I also wonder what is everyone’s take on these verses.