I was led to think that we included in the category of ‘unsound’ any valid arguments whose premises were of unknown truth value – that we only call “sound” any argument that is valid whose premises are known to be true. Thus any argument that isn’t in this category is unsound (and possibly invalid as well).
Hmm… I’m not certain that this is the proper conclusion. By this standard,
every assertion in metaphysics and spirituality – including the atheists’ argument that “God does not exist” – must be rejected. That doesn’t sound quite right…
What of Ockham’s Razor, then? One theory that explains everything without postulating an additional being is to be preferred, no?
Not quite. Occam’s Razor only suggests that, for two theories with equal predictive power, the one with fewer assumptions is preferred. It doesn’t suggest that the one with fewer assumptions is
better; just that, between these equal theories, one is ‘preferred.’ So, you’re left with a couple of problems: first, you need to show that the materialist’s theory has fewer assumptions. Second (and most problematic), you need to demonstrate that its predictive power is not inferior to the theist’s…
No, I was talking there about plausibility of a theory, not existence of a being; and I was talking about my personal experience, an observation, not a sentiment.
Hmm. You said, “the absence of God I feel then tips the scale in favor of atheism.” Did you not mean that you feel the absence of God – that is, that your lack of a feeling of God’s existence is what decides the argument for you? Perhaps I’m misreading you…?
Please be careful to regard what I actually said. I said practical certainty, not absolute certainty. (Edit: Sorry, in case it is unclear, I mean certainty that enables practice i.e. action, like the way that a stone floor enables us to walk whereas quicksand doesn’t. I don’t mean “practically certain” as in “99.9% convinced it’s an irrefutable fact”.) Science has that practical certainty, hence we have a basis for experimentation – a confidence, if you will, that when we drop something from the Tower of Pisa to measure gravity, we expect it to fall down rather than up.
OK; fair enough. However, you’re still making claims that are, by their very definition, logically impossible to refute (and therefore, are making unreasonable claims). If “practical certainty” is engaged only in ‘experimentation’ – and therefore, in empirical evidence – then “practical certainty” cannot address questions of metaphysics and of spiritual beings (like God). Therefore, your “practical certainty” is of no use in the present discussion, and cannot be brought to bear in order to prove or disprove any assertion.
In a way it is ironic, because – sharing my philosophy of science briefly – science does not even generate truth claims. I wonder if it has practical certainty precisely because it doesn’t make absolute truth claims.
Hmm…
Would it be unfair, then, to extrapolate? That is, your notion about truth claims w.r.t. science implies, then, that materialists’ theories about God cannot generate truth claims. Therefore, they cannot – as you had claimed – stand up to your definition of ‘sound’ and ‘unsound’ arguments, nor can they be used in an “Occam’s Razor” discussion (since, by definition, they have no predictive value… practically speaking)…
Indeed, but again, going back to practical certainty, when there is no police officer in sight, many Americans drive above the speed limit.
I would assert that this has less to do with “practical certainty” than it does with raw
belief. An American who sees no police car has no
certainty that there is no police presence… just a
belief that they may not be, and therefore, he acts according to his faith…!
Would you please elaborate on this theory, especially your last statement?
Sure. In each of Jesus’ miracles – especially in the Gospel of John – we see that they are
signs. Their purpose was to reveal Jesus as the Son of God. (In fact, as we read through the Gospels, we see that Jesus often told the person He healed not to tell anyone about it. In other words, its value as a sign was oriented towards its retelling
following Jesus’ death and resurrection – that is, during the time of the Church and its evangelization of the nations.
Jesus himself talked about the value of His signs. At times, He refused to perform healings to those who asked for signs. He did not heal all whom he encountered – read John 5, and note that, of all those at the pool, He healed only one.
So, if He did not heal every physical infirmity, then we cannot proceed on the assertion that His ministry was healing for healing’s sake; we have to find another reason for these healings. I’m asserting that they served a higher purpose in the context of His ministry. Therefore, we cannot look at the fact of the existence of healings in Scripture and thereby presume that He will heal each of our physical ills. Even Paul complains that he had been given a physical ‘thorn’ and it was his role to bear it faithfully, if not stoically.