I guess the atheists here don’t understand philosophy.
Speak for yourself. I understand philosophy enough to recognize that a conclusion (e.g. “there exists an uncaused cause”) that violates its premises (e.g. “nothing exists uncaused”) is invalid.
Not once did I use God as a “default” answer or as a cop out.
It seems to me that you did. I got the distinct impression that you leapt straight to God as your “first cause” without any justification whatsoever.
Philosophy isn’t science!!! You don’t say, “I don’t know.” You try to come to a conclusion through reasoning.
You’re sort of correct, but you’re off a bit in some important ways. You draw conclusions based on premises that you accept as given, and then you work from those premises to a conclusion. However, even once you demonstrate that your argument is sound (which, IMO, you haven’t done yet), you still need to demonstrate that the premises are actually correct in the real world (which, IMO, you haven’t done yet either) before you can assert that your conclusion has been shown to be true.
Don’t accuse me of petitio principii! I assumed nothing in my reasoning (other than the fact that time and eternity are separate, which doesn’t matter in this discussion. That’s it!)
Seeing how “eternity” is defined
in terms of time, what does “time and eternity are separate” even mean?
And yes, you did beg the question. It’s not necessarily your fault, because question-begging is built into the First Cause argument and I realize you may not have recognized it. The argument basically says “nothing can exist uncaused, therefore the universe does not exist uncaused.”
In run-of-the-mill situations within human experience and at our scale of space and time, sure, this works: it’s common sense. Things happen because they’re caused to happen, and those causes are caused to happen, etc., etc. However, common sense is a poor indicator of what happens at the space scale of the very large or very small, or at the time scale of the very short or very, very long. Common sense tells us that solid objects are, well, solid, but particles pass right through them. All matter also vibrates at high frequency, even when common sense tells us that it’s sitting motionless.
Now - common sense fails often enough in the here-and-now, but you’re going one step further: you’re invoking common sense to describe events before Planck time, when the fundamental laws of physics as we know them break down. How can you assert with certainty that your logic is valid?
If you can’t give a philosophical argument to my philosophical reasoning, then don’t criticize it.
Your objection is only valid if you keep your argument completely within the philosophical realm. If you want to constrain your argument to hypotheticals, sure: let’s stick to the philosophical objections. However, once you start making claims about physicalities (e.g. “God exists”), then objections based on the physical also become relevant.