Your argument seems to me to be nothing more than: ‘You made a choice, you changed your mind, therefore free will’.
That’s close, but you’re missing the salient point: it’s not just that there are two choices – it’s that there’s nothing that you can point to that would explain why there are two different choices. Your response goes to extremes: “Oh, you’d
never pick the restaurant in the bad section of town!”. No, perhaps not, but that’s not the scenario I’m suggesting. Rather, I’m looking at two choices, simply seconds apart, with no discernible deterministic forces to point to that explain the choices. One choice, followed by a different choice. In the absence of a determining factor, ‘free will choice’ is the logical conclusion.
And if you would make the same choice every time if all the conditions are exactly the same, then does it make any sense to say that you have free will?
You haven’t demonstrated “same choice every time”, however. In the context of a single example, if you show ‘same choice’, you’re just showing a strong preference in a particular context. If I pick sushi over steak 100% of the time, then you’ve only established that I really like sushi (and not that I have no free will).
If you want to argue that you COULD have gone to Bubba’s Greasy Grille and that therefore proves free will, then I’m not sure that’s a valid argument. Just because the choice is available, and there are always choices available, does not prove free will, because those choices exist if free will exists or not.
No, that’s not my argument, nor have I attempted to make that argument.
To prove it does, you have to convince me that any decision you make could have been different if the situation was EXACTLY the same. And in that case, you will need to show the reasons why you made one choice and then another. That I can’t see is possible. Because for every single choice you make, there are reasons which result in that choice. If the reasons are exactly the same, what on earth makes you choose differently if you had the opportunity again?
You offer an impossible thought experiment: one that requires, as its basis, repeatability of a single moment in time. However, the closest we can get is an approximation. Since the thought experiment is infeasible, I’m not certain how you can claim to prove your point (it would be kinda like saying “since the moon isn’t made of green cheese, therefore it’s true that the moon landings never happened!”
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). However, it seems counterintuitive to suggest that, in the realm of things where any of a number of possible choices is plausible (i.e., not your example in which a person would always necessarily reach the same choice based on personal preference), that one selection and one selection only – in all cases – is the only solution.
The only time I think that that is possible is when you really can’t make up your mind and it is literally an arbitrary choice. A coin toss.
Ding ding ding. We have a winner!
If it’s “arbitrary”, then there is clearly the opportunity to make a given choice out of free will. “I like vanilla
and chocolate chip ice cream; today, I choose vanilla.” How could this
not be considered free will?
There are reasons which determine every single choice. The local diner versus Bubba’s was easy. So maybe you think that was an extreme example which proves nothing.
Basically, yeah. You picked a test case at the extremes, and are trying to extrapolate its answer to all cases. All that it proves is that there’s no situation in which
any choice is possible (and not that there are no situations in which more than one choice is plausible).
But if you think about literally anything that you consciously do, there are still reasons for it. There is still an internal debate. You weigh the pros and cons automatically. You have information which you apply to the situation and yes, you make a decision, you make a choice.
This much is clear.
But that decision, that choice, will always be the same given the exact same circumstances.
This is less clear. How does it follow? Short of a materialist worldview (everything is computationally determinate), this cannot be claimed to be self-evident, as you seem to be claiming.
It’s like the operating system runs the software calls up stored information, applies all the applicable variables and k’ching…here’s the result. You are the operating system and the software is your thought process. They would be exactly the same if you were to rerun the film as many times as you’d like. The variables and the stored info is, by virtue of the situation being identical, is the same.
Except that you would have to prove that all we are is software running on wetware that’s explicitly deterministic. That’s not the case.
How do you get a different result each time? You don’t.
So… address my example, please. How is it that you explain editing, in the context of my example (in the time between typing and pressing “preview” and pressing “submit”)?