Where is the ‘reasoning’ in guessing that they might have a vision of jesus? And the example you used was your dad, obviously he heard the name jesus before. But we are talking about those who havent heard about j-e-s-u-s.
Hi AgnosTheist,
Guess I presumed the logic, from a Christian standpoint, was obvious. Sorry about that.
The reasoning is:
- God/Jesus can do such a thing (appear in a vision, infuse knowledge, etc.)
- He desires the salvation of all
- Human testimony that such things have happened (various life after death testimonies)
- Therefore, it is not contrary to reason to think that God could appear to someone in their final moments.
I certainly was not giving my experience with my father as something that should be used in Nick9’s discussion/debate with an atheist. There are far more remarkable stories than mine that could be used for that. It was just a personal interjection to indicate why - besides logical reasons - I personally felt confident to make the assertion that God might intervene in the final moments.
The context is about jewish and non-jewish christians. Its got nothing to do with the discussion here.
Regarding the Romans quote. Nick9 said the atheist also made the same type arguments regarding baptism (See his opening post.) It was my error for not noting in my post that the Roman’s passage can be used especially in refuting the Baptism attacks. My apologies. (Circumcision=initiation rite into OT Covenant people; Baptism=initiation rite into NT Covenant people) I think it can also apply to faith, but in a less obvious way. Verses 14 - 16 given below might be easier for someone to tie in with faith.
Regarding the context being “jewish and non jewish Christians”, I disagree. The context is the value of the Law, the value of being a Jew. This becomes obvious if you read the **whole **chapter.
Just one short sample:
*Rom 2:14-16 When Gentiles who have not the law do by nature what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law. They show that what the law requires is written on their hearts, while their conscience also bears witness and their conflicting thoughts accuse or perhaps excuse them on that day when, according to my gospel, God judges the secrets of men by Christ Jesus. *
You say that these words have no application here. I guess I’m not sure how you read/interpret/apply Scripture. That is probably where we differ. I see Paul’s words in Romans 2 as having meaning today - not just for Jews, but for me and all Christians.
Specifically: Do not think because we have undergone the religious initiation rite of Baptism, believe Jesus is God and His teaching is true, that we are guaranteed salvation. The teaching must be lived.
And, do not consider condemned those who are not baptized, who do not know and believe in Jesus due to their circumstances, yet live as He taught. (This meaning definitely responds to the atheist’s challenge.)
By the way, in Scripture and in Catholic teaching “faith” means more than just believing. I mention this just because I made a couple of presumptions in earlier posts that I shouldn’t have, and don’t want to make the mistake of making any more.
Hope this post clarifies.
God bless,
Nita